Quantum Theory

Hello I watched the recent Horizon program on 'what is reality?' and I think they made a mistake. I can see the experiment is taught generally, using one-photon at a time; http://www.teachspin.com/instruments/two_slit/experiments.shtml and I understand the concept. However, they said that if the photons were tracked that the target pattern would change, so it would no longer be a wave pattern. Has anyone done this in the lab? Was the detector passive [what did you use]? Cheers

So I tutor freshmen and sophomore chemistry students as a side job at my university. I've been struggling to explain the concept of atomic orbitals to some of the brighter students who keep asking deeper and deeper questions. A typical conversation goes like this: Me:...so now this model is accepted over the Bohr model I showed you last time. Student: What's wrong with the Bohr model? It makes more sense. Me:Well the quantum model is more consistent with experiment and it aligns nicely with things like the photoelectric effect, atomic line spectra, the observed structure of molecules (physical and electronic) Student:Why is that? Me:[quantized energy leve…

Can you actually measure the specific energy of something? And if so, how exactly? Because I heard somewhere that energy is relative. Also about photons, I know about the red and blue shift, but how does that effect a photons energy? Can't photons only have specific energy in order to exist? But, the blue shift states I as I approach an object, the wavelength of light becomes more condensed, and I can calculate the energy based on wavelength, so doesn't that mean energy is purely relative and nothing has a specific defined amount of energy? But then, if I am traveling at 10 kilometers per hour exactly, don't I have to have a specific amount of energy to do that? …

I question the future of Quantum Physics. The perplexity of quantum physics spreads into other fields. My field is social theory. I have taken the work of over twenty-two social and natural sciences to build a cause and effect theory of the natural selection process in social evolution. This work is objective and in conflict with much of the social theory concensus, such as it is. I see my approach as determinist. I believe that the mystery of quantum physics has enabled a visible drift in social theory away from the strictly determistic approach. This leads me here because I have a theory about this in "The Last Civilization" and hope to get comments from some of you…

Considering the fact that everything is made out of particles small enough to be affected by Quantum Mechanics, shouldn't everything be randomly broken up and scattered across the multi-verse?

If and when we gain the ability to harness the power if Quantum Mechanics, couldn't we apply that to a larger scale to gain the ability of teleportation? (Forgive me if this sounds idiotic, I'm new to physics.)

Hi Everyone Hope all is well with you all, wherever in the world you are....and also happy day to you all I've got a question for my uni assignment that i'm having problems with....I just literally hit the wall....my brain doesn't seem to be able to process the question...or want too... and I have now been staring blankly at this question for the best part of the afternoon.....and i dont have a clue where to start ! also i was expecting there to be an example of this question in our book....but there wasn't sadly.... so if someone out there has any spare time and can give a girl a hand, it would be hugely appreciated !! ok..... said question; The tot…

I thought gluons were only theory, but are gluons actually real observable particles that I can observe with a particle collider I build myself? Do I actually have to start worrying about those stupid extra dimentions of folding? Wikipedia says they were proven to exist some time ago, but I even talked to real physicists since that time and they only talked about them in the context of theory, not a proven thing. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gluon Look on the right where it says "discovered"

In the Quantum 'eraser' experiment, Quantum-Entangled photons are created; and, then, manipulations applied to one such Entangled photon, evoke "sympathetic metamorphoses", in its Entangled partner. And, these "sympathetic responses" are manifested "Quantum quickly", apparently instantaneously, in zero measured time: Is the following an accurate picture of the physical phenomena ? In this writer's understanding, all "Quantum quick" -- to wit, instantaneous & non-local -- phenomena occur completely "intra-Wave-Function", within one single WF, through the "tenuous tails" of probability, that always connect the "pieces of probability", of a spatially sundered WF.…

There is always some "slop" in spin direction, even after QM Measurement, since [math] \mu_z^2 = \left( \frac{\hbar}{2} \right)^2 \hbar^2 \times m^2 < \mu^2 = \frac{3 \hbar^2}{4} = \hbar^2 \times m (m+1)[/math]. Thus, when an electron is "spin up", it is still in a super-position state, of many "wobbling off-kilter" spin states, more-or-less spinning "up", but also w/ components in other directions. Is the following figure an apt visualization, of this process, which would explain why, the "spin up" state, is still a super-position of "half spin left, half spin right" ?? fig.1 -- viewed "from the side", a "spin up" state contains components, which are spinni…

I was told that in nuclear reactions, the law of conservation of mass does not hold true. I was wondering is that because the mass lost is in the form of energy?

Please consider the Hydrogen 1S ground-state Wave Function (WF), [math]\propto \frac{e^{-r}}{r}[/math]. If that WF is normalized, so that its modulus squared integrates to one, [math]\int r^2 \times \frac{e^{-2r}}{r^2} dr \rightarrow 1[/math], then the WF itself integrates to two, [math]\int r^2 \times \frac{e^{-r}}{r} dr = 2[/math]. (Of course, that 'direct WF integral' is only the amplitude, to be multiplied by the appropriate complex exponential of the ground-state energy-frequency, [math]\propto e^{-13.7 \, eV \, \times t}[/math].) QUESTION: For a general 'wave packet' -- which 'spreads through space', over time, according to its evolution, as described by …

Quantum Wave Function "collapse", upon Measurement / Detection, always involves some signal, which "registers" the WFC / M / D, to the rest of our space-time. WFC / M / D often involves a spatial localization, into a vacant-and-available bound state, in an attractive potential well. Yet, charged particles, accelerating due to their interactions, can also emit energy-carrying photons. Generalizing, WFC / M / D seems to involve "Force Interactions" (e.g., EM), and the creation-and-emission (or absorption-and-destruction) of the corresponding Force Carriers (e.g., photons). Therefore, total particle number is not conserved. To wit, WFC / M / D seems to involve …

Classical physics have many rules that the majority of the educated population know(high school), these rules are steadfast. Quantum physics have many rules that the majority of the educated population do not know(college degree), I among them. Are the rules for quantum as steadfast? I have heard that they are random by some accounts; my suspicion is that they are simply more complex, not random. How do the two types compare(in their respective strictness in their rules?)?

Please ponder the Wave Function (WF), of an electron, spiraling around a field line, in a uniform magnetic field [math]\vec{B} = B \hat{z}[/math]. This field corresponds to a vector potential [math]\vec{A} = \hat{\phi} B r / 2[/math]. The SWE, for a time-independent, 'magnetically bound' state, is then: [math]E \Psi = \frac{\left( \vec{p} - q \vec{A} \right)^2}{2 m} \Psi[/math] Now, the vector potential commutes with the momentum operator (since the former's azimuthal-angle component, is independent of that variable). Thus, defining [math]e \equiv -q[/math], w.h.t.: [math]2 m E \Psi = \left( -\hbar^2 \nabla^2 + 2 e A_{\phi} p_{\phi} + (e A)^2 \right) \P…

I've never seen this before .. so I figured I post it. While researching another subject I noticed the following relationships. Is this why it is theorized that all forces unify at the Planck level? Pm = Plank Mass Pl = Planck Length Pt = Planck Time Pf = Planck frequency (non-angular) = 2.952104e42 Hz Eo = Electric Constant Uo = Magnetic Constant Force of gravity between Planck masses one Planck Length away: F = G * (Pm * Pm) / (Pl * Pl) = 1.210259e44 N Electrostatic force between Planck charges on Planck length away: F = (1/(4*pi*Eo)) * (Qp^2/Pl^2) = 1.21025e44 N Magnetic force between two Planck scale magnetic poles: F…

coa(h/i grad epsi_spinor - q.Av) + mocob.epsi_spinor + phi.epsi_spinor = -h/i partia_d(epsi)/partial_dt What are the exact meaning of the elements of the spinor?

when a atom goes into the quantum transition by the electron jumping down a orbit, a photon is emited but wher does this photon come from (the laws of conservation of mass) and how does it get the signal to jump down a orbit?

I was thinking, in terms of schrodingers cat, if there is some sort of ultimate observer, would that mean that no alternate realities 'apart from ours' could exists since the quantum state in terms of their wave function...? since all other quantum states would be collapsed.... Or would this mean that the other realities would actually be stabilised due to an ultimate observer ?, as each reality, like a river breaking off from the mainstream and becoming a separate river, becomes its own continuum.? These realities are however still part of the original realities just different in there continuum states...

I heard that when they discovered gravitaional lenzing that they were looking at two stars that were exactly alike. Through careful observation that proved the gravitational lenzing theory and that were actually seeing two instances of the same star as the light moving around a galaxy had'nt quite congealed into a single visual frame because of the disances involved. Could quantum entanlement be the result of quantum gravitational lenzing?

It is reported that the wave function will collapse when observed or due to environmental interaction. Is it possible that the wave function collapse in an experimental setting is due to electromagnetic interference from a human body?

Hi, I am an amateur trying to teach myself physics by trying to do at least one problem every day. While these are textbook exercises, nobody has assigned them to me... so helping me isn't cheating unless you think I should be able to handle these problems myself. These are some beginner problems from Griffiths' Introduction to Quantum Mechanics I will post my answers later today. I love feedback and further reading if anybody has any suggestions.

In QED, it is well known that the electromagnetic field is also quantized (related to quantized electromagnetic sources) and that the quantum field is that of the wave function of photons. But, I am just wondering if photons are deterministic, as confirmed by absorption and collision (Compton's effect). And, if not.... is the wave function of photons can be determined? Is there something mysterious in QED? Can any specialized expert comment?

If we recall that: Type I evolution = "Quantum Jumps" = "Wave Function Collapse" = Measurement / Detection Type II evolution = SWE then, can we not claim, that (1) all behavior is Quantum; (2) so-called 'Classical' behavior is Quantum 'Type I' behavior, whereby WF "collapse" constantly re-localizes macro-scopic systems of particles into definite states of existence ? To wit, there is no such thing as 'Classical' behavior, but, rather, all behavior is Quantum (Type I or Type II evolution); and, so-called 'Classicality' is simply 'the Type I half of QM behavior' ??

Is it possible to construct 'mixed' momentum-position eigenstates, of the form: [math]\Psi \propto e^{i k x} \delta(y) \delta(z)[/math] ? Such a 'perfect pencil' of radiation would have to be perfectly monochromatic. When you put a photon into a state of monochromaticity, does its wave function "inflate" out to infinite extent, in that direction ??