Everything posted by Genady
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What is gravity?
In the Einstein field equation, the curvature on one side and the energy-momentum on the other side are not lightlike separated. It is not local, contrary to
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What is gravity?
Thank you for the correction. I should've said, "... are not timelike or lightlike separated ..."
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I ask recognition from physicalists of at least 1 non-physical dimension where concepts, the inner voice, inner imagery and dreams 'reside'
I see. It gets worse. Now, it is boring. Regurgitating of age-old philosophies. Hundreds or thousands of years old. In the recent decades, marketed by Deepak Chopra. I am out.
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What is gravity?
Not necessarily. For example, the Schwarzschild geometry exists in vacuum.
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I ask recognition from physicalists of at least 1 non-physical dimension where concepts, the inner voice, inner imagery and dreams 'reside'
Sorry, I guess it makes sense to you, but it doesn't make sense to me. Just words. Got a model?
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What is gravity?
Yes, it has not. Every spacetime has a curvature.
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I ask recognition from physicalists of at least 1 non-physical dimension where concepts, the inner voice, inner imagery and dreams 'reside'
Just replace "non-physical" with "physical" and "mind" with "brain": Science (as concept) is physical. Without this physical brain you could not read these words here on the page or any other book for that matter. Take the physical brain away from the world, and science ceases to exist. Yes.
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What is gravity?
Since energy-momentum and curvature are not timelike separated, there is no meaningful causal relation between them.
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Transforming covarianly under translation, the meaning here?
I did, and my answer was that \(\mathcal L\) is invariant under translation.
- I ask recognition from physicalists of at least 1 non-physical dimension where concepts, the inner voice, inner imagery and dreams 'reside'
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Transforming covarianly under translation, the meaning here?
The Lagrangian, \[\mathcal L(x)= \frac 1 2 \partial^{\mu} \phi (x) \partial_{\mu} \phi (x) - \frac 1 2 m^2 \phi (x)^2\] for a scalar field \(\phi (x)\) is said to be "Lorentz invariant and transforms covariantly under translation." What does it mean that it transforms covariantly under translation?
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How a cone shape would roll?
You also need the length of the pellet.
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If The Moon Disappears
Isn't it rather 6000? 😄
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If The Moon Disappears
Another ecological effect will be on organisms which use Moon for timing, for example, coral spawning.
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If The Moon Disappears
It will stop slowing down (almost).
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What is gravity?
This ^^^^, I understand. This ^^^^, is only a distraction to me. (But generally, more often than not, I dislike analogies. Perhaps something individual.)
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What is gravity?
Yes, it is, in this sense: "This is extremely general. In any kind of gravitational field, as long as it is more or less constant with time, and not doing anything too radically relativistic, the coefficient in front of \(dt^2\) in the metric is always one plus twice the gravitational potential." Susskind, Cabannes. General Relativity: The Theoretical Minimum (p. 155).
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Metric or Kronecker delta?
I'm at ease with the Schwartz's notation by now. It is as simple as mentally substituting \(A_{\mu} g^{\mu \alpha} B_{\alpha}\) every time he writes \(A_{\mu} B_{\mu}\).
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Off-shell-ness of the Feynman propagator
I'm looking where exactly, during a construction of the Feynman propagator \(D_F(x_1,x_2)\), a particle goes off-shell. It is on-shell all the way until before the last step: \(D_F(x_1,x_2)=\frac i {(2 \pi)^4}\int d^3 k \int d \omega \, e^{-i \vec k (\vec x_1 - \vec x_2)} \frac 1 {\omega^2 - \omega_k^2 + i \epsilon} e^{i \omega (t_1-t_2)}\) The particle is on-shell here because its 4-momentum is \((\omega_k, \vec k) \), where \(\omega_k^2 = \vec k^2+m^2\). Integration variable of the first integral is 3-momentum \(\vec k\), where each one of the three component varies from \(- \infty\) to \(\infty\). Integration variable of the second integral is energy \(\omega\), which also varies from \(- \infty\) to \(\infty\). Now, we combine these integration variables into a new 4-vector \(k=(\omega,\vec k)\), where each component varies independently from \(- \infty\) to \(\infty\). This 4-vector is not a 4-momentum of anything and thus is off-shell for a simple reason that there is no shell for it to be on. It is just an integration variable: \(D_F(x_1,x_2)=\frac i {(2 \pi)^4}\int d^4 k \, e^{-i \vec k (\vec x_1 - \vec x_2)} \frac 1 {\omega^2 - \omega_k^2 + i \epsilon} e^{i \omega (t_1-t_2)} = \frac i {(2 \pi)^4}\int d^4 k \frac {e^{k (x_1 - x_2)}} {\omega^2 - \omega_k^2 + i \epsilon}\) Being a generic 4-vector, \(k\) satisfies \(\omega^2=k^2+ \vec k^2\). Being an on-shell 4-momentum, \((\omega_k, \vec k) \) satisfies \(\omega_k^2 = \vec k^2+m^2\). Substituting these above, we get the final form of the Feynman propagator: \(D_F(x_1,x_2)= \frac i {(2 \pi)^4}\int d^4 k \frac {e^{k (x_1 - x_2)}} {k^2 - m^2 + i \epsilon}\) The particle, which is on-shell, is not explicit in this form. Instead, we have a generic variable \(k\), which is a Lorentz invariant way to package the four integration variables, and which is not a 4-momentum of any particle. Evidently, there are no off-shell particles here.
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Symmetry breaking Lagrangian
Unfortunately, I can't read this post: and I don't know how his result is different from mine, but it seems that his EL equation is the same as mine, <<<<< which is different from <<<<<<< I disagree with the latter. We need to use the generalized EL equation, which I have already derived in this exercise: and got the answer compatible with this: (Euler–Lagrange equation - Wikipedia)
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A toy Feynmann diagram
Write down the next-order diagrams for the equation of motion \(\Box h - \lambda h^2 -J =0\). Check the answer using Green's function method.
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Symmetry breaking Lagrangian
Q: How many constants \(c\) are there so that \(\phi(x)=c\) is a solution to the equation of motion? A: Three. \(c=0\) and two solutions for \(c^2= \frac {3!} {\lambda} m^2\) Q: Which solution has the lowest energy (the ground state)? A: The potential energy from the Lagrangian is \[\frac {\lambda} {4!} \phi^4 - \frac 1 2 m^2 \phi^2\]It is the lowest for the non-zero \(c\): \(- \frac{3!m^4} {4 \lambda}\).
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Symmetry breaking Lagrangian
This is a multi-step exercise. It would be very helpful if somebody could check my step(s) as I go. @joigus, I'm sure it is a child play for you. I'd like to make sure that I've derived correctly the equation of motion for this Lagrangian: \[\mathcal L=- \frac 1 2 \phi \Box \phi + \frac 1 2 m^2 \phi^2 - \frac {\lambda} {4!} \phi^4\] The EL equation: \[\frac {\partial \mathcal L} {\partial \phi} + \Box \frac {\partial \mathcal L} {\partial (\Box \phi)} = 0\] The equation of motion: \[\Box \phi - \frac 1 2 m^2 + \frac {\lambda} {3!} \phi^3 = 0\] How is it? P.S. As edit LaTex does not work, I add a typo correction here. The equation of motion is rather \[\Box \phi - m^2 \phi + \frac {\lambda} {3!} \phi^3 = 0\]
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Where was the symmetry?
The advantage is, no deadlines.
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Where was the symmetry?
I think, I got it. The symmetry validates the equation (3), because this equation makes the variation of Lagrangian a total derivative, and this makes the variation of action vanish: IOW, without the symmetry, we can't go from (4) to (5).