Why do developed countries have lower marriage rates?

 

What are the root causes if there are any?

 

Your speculations please...

Could you please first share some data that shows your premise to be valid before you ask us to begin speculating about why it may be that way?

Could you please first share some data that shows your premise to be valid before you ask us to begin speculating about why it may be that way?

 

The marriage rate he means is the rate of number of new 1st marriages. It is obviously much lower in developed nations than 3rd world or developing.

 

 

The root cause is lack of healthy males. Too many men read newspaper instead of doing general labor

It is obviously much lower in developed nations than 3rd world or developing.

 

It should therefore be straightforward to supply evidence supporting the claim...

 

I'm not sure how manual labor and literacy relate to marriage rates - are you trying to say people who engaged in manual labor professions are more likely to marry than those engaged in more literary pursuits? Again it would be nice to see some evidence to support such an assertion.

Edited August 12, 201213 yr by Arete

Here is a web page I found which provides some data.

http://www.nationmaster.com/graph/peo_mar_rat-people-marriage-rate

If it's right then the US has one of the highest marriage rates.

Notwithstanding their gun laws, death penalty and lack of proper healthcare, I think most people would still say that the US is a developed country.

 

So the original premise seems to be false and so there's no need to look for a reason.

 

(and God alone knows what JohnStu was on about.)

So the original premise seems to be false and so there's no need to look for a reason

 

My initial thought was that the marriage rate would coincide with the general "religiousness" of a country. So America, being quite a religious country would have a high marriage rate.

 

Anyway, if the data you point to is correct then the initial premise wrong and things are not so simple.