Questions about Bell's theorem (split)

[geordief]

 

 

The cause is non-locality. The fact that the entangled particles are a single system, described by a single wave function.

 

 

Is non-locality applicable over any distance? Right to the edge of the observable universe?

 

Do the two related events have to be related in any way apart from originating from the same "parent event"?

 

Does the "detector" have any input into the phenomenon ?

 

Hope I am not derailing. Please let me know if I am.

Edited November 11, 2016 by geordief

[swansont]

 

Hope I am not derailing. Please let me know if I am.

A general rule is that if your questions are not directed at the OP, you are probably hijacking the thread. Because answering your questions probably won't be answering those of the OP

[geordief]

A general rule is that if your questions are not directed at the OP, you are probably hijacking the thread. Because answering your questions probably won't be answering those of the OP

thanks

[Strange]

Is non-locality applicable over any distance? Right to the edge of the observable universe?

 

 

As far as I know. Including beyond the observable universe (which is OK because it can't be used to transmit information).

 

 

Do the two related events have to be related in any way apart from originating from the same "parent event"?

 

They have to be entangled in some way, which means that must have shared some sort of interaction in the past.

 

 

Does the "detector" have any input into the phenomenon ?

 

I would say yes, because changing anything in the experiment can affect the result - see things like the quantum eraser experiment, for example.