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Could some kind soul explain the simplification of the following

 

sin(theta) + mucos(theta) =

cos(theta) - musin(theta)

 

tan(theta) + mu

1 - mutan(theta)

 

 

I understand that sin(theta)/cos(theta) = tan(theta), but cannot work out how the 1 - the rest comes from.

 

Thanks

What happens if you divide by cosQ ?

 

cosQ - usinQ goes to 1-utanQ no?

 

Also the sinQ + ucosQ will go to tanQ + u.

Edited by DrP
multiple post merged

Two little things: 1) you can't just "divide by [math]\cos\theta[/math]" You have ensure that whatever operations you do result in no change or that the same change is performed to both sides of the equation. For example, if you multiply a term by 1, that results in no change. And, multiplying by a clever choice of the form of 1 is what you are really doing here: [math]1=\frac{\frac{1}{\cos\theta}}{\frac{1}{\cos\theta}}[/math]. It is a small thing, but, technically you aren't "dividing by [math]\cos\theta[/math]."

 

and 2) you might want to write it in LaTeX next time. It is pretty easy to learn and makes reading the math many, many times easier.

 

[math] \frac{\sin\theta + \mu\cos\theta}{\cos\theta-\mu\sin\theta}[/math]

Thanks Bignose - I knew you couldn't just divide through across the whole thing by cosQ - but it gives the right result. I was thinking that dividing the top and bottom would be alright as the effect would cancel out. I just wasn't realy sure how to put it (thus the question marks in my post). Also - I think I need to work out how to use LaTeX as well. (I know there is a thread on it here somewhere - I just need to get the time to go through it properly).

It helps to hover over equations posted by others so you can see how they did it.

 

 

Oh yea - I'd not noticed that - thanks. It seems quite intuitive really.

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