Strange Posted January 17, 2015 Share Posted January 17, 2015 I did want to go back to my original assumption of -infinity/+infinity=-1, I think science is putting a little too much weight in pure mathematical logic. That doesn't change the fact that dividing by infinity is undefined. And weren't you trying so argue that your ideas was based on logic, earlier? So, I'm going to consider infinity the primary irrational number, but it can only be expressed in terms of a + or - value because the true value is indeterminate. Infinity is not an irrational number. And the value is not indeterminate. I'm also going to suggest that any irrational number divided by itself will always yield a virtual rational value of 1 or -1. Any irrational number (any number, come to that) divided by itself equals 1. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andreasjva Posted January 18, 2015 Author Share Posted January 18, 2015 Any irrational number (any number, come to that) divided by itself equals 1. I said it is a virtual rational value of 1 or -1. It is as close to real as it can ever be, because reality itself is relative, exactly as Einstein imagined it to be. And weren't you trying so argue that your ideas was based on logic, earlier? It is. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Strange Posted January 18, 2015 Share Posted January 18, 2015 I said it is a virtual rational value of 1 or -1. So you need to explain what a "virtual rational value" is. it is not a term I am familiar with. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andreasjva Posted January 18, 2015 Author Share Posted January 18, 2015 (edited) So you need to explain what a "virtual rational value" is. it is not a term I am familiar with. It's probably one you should become familiar with. The universe cannot possess a value of 0, because that would imply nothing. The universe cannot possess a value of 1, because that would imply a state of equality. 1 is also a rational number. No rational number can ever resolve an irrational value without becoming infinite. An irrational number can determine a rational value, and that value must be considered virtual because the universe cannot be simultaneously 1 and infinite, or rational and irrational. There's your proof. The universe is irrational. Therefore, the expression -∞/+∞=-1 is true. -1 is a virtual rational number. -1 is a relative perspective of an irrational state, and that relative perspective is finite Edited January 18, 2015 by andreasjva Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bignose Posted January 18, 2015 Share Posted January 18, 2015 It's probably one you should become familiar with. The universe cannot possess a value of 0, because that would imply nothing. The universe cannot possess a value of 1, because that would imply a state of equality. 1 is also a rational number. No rational number can ever resolve an irrational value without becoming infinite. An irrational number can determine a rational value, and that value must be considered virtual because the universe cannot be simultaneously 1 and infinite, or rational and irrational. There's your proof. The universe is irrational. Therefore, the expression -∞/+∞=-1 is true. -1 is a virtual rational number. -1 is a relative perspective of an irrational state, and that relative perspective is finite You're still using a great deal of words without defining exactly what they mean to you. "The universe cannot possess a value of 1, because that would imply a state of equality." -- I don't get this, because to me a state of equality would mean that the left hand side and right hand side of an equation were equal. It typically doesn't really matter what the actual value of each side is, because normally that value is almost wholly determined by the units that were used. And I certainly don't see an equation here. "No rational number can ever resolve an irrational value without becoming infinite." -- How does one number "resolve" another? "An irrational number can determine a rational value, and that value must be considered virtual because the universe cannot be simultaneously 1 and infinite, or rational and irrational." -- How does one number "determine" another? "Therefore, the expression -∞/+∞=-1 is true. " -- The "proof" you've laid out here certainly lacks rigor. I know that you're not well versed with the scientific and mathematical literature. But the word choices you make to communicate your idea has implications. There is terminology well established that you can use, or if you want to use other words, you need to define it so your audience can follow along. Such as the questions above. Please assume we know nothing and define every single term along the way. Thanks. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted January 18, 2015 Share Posted January 18, 2015 It's probably one you should become familiar with. The universe cannot possess a value of 0, because that would imply nothing. The universe cannot possess a value of 1, because that would imply a state of equality. 1 is also a rational number. No rational number can ever resolve an irrational value without becoming infinite. An irrational number can determine a rational value, and that value must be considered virtual because the universe cannot be simultaneously 1 and infinite, or rational and irrational. There's your proof. The universe is irrational. Therefore, the expression -∞/+∞=-1 is true. -1 is a virtual rational number. -1 is a relative perspective of an irrational state, and that relative perspective is finite ! Moderator Note So we're back where we started, with no progress toward anything resembling a rigorous model. We're done. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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