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wave-particle duality

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Is it plausible that the wave function does not exist in 3 dimensional space?

That our 3 dimensional is a surface of a 4 dimensional space or a cross section of 4 dimensions.

 

Check how "inverse square law" would work in 4 dimensional space + 1 time and let us know what math you got..

Edited by Sensei

Check how "inverse square law" would work in 4 dimensional space + 1 time and let us know what math you got..

 

Agree - But surely the other way around. Can the OP give some approx law which applies to 4d+1 which would give us (in 3d+1) what manifests as inverse square?

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The best analogy between quantum and classical physics is "the pilot-wave dynamics of walking droplets".

In this example the droplets and the wave function are separated rather than having duality.

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