caseclosed Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 any suggestions? I think have to use partial fraction decomposition but I don't seem to get anywhere... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jordan Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 Let x equal tan^6. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
insane_alien Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 tan^6 means nothing. tan^6 of what ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
caseclosed Posted March 17, 2006 Author Share Posted March 17, 2006 Let x equal tan^6. thank you, I was letting x^(1/6)=tan(x) so the problem got really complicated and I ended up nowhere, lol.... now here is another one I have trouble on, no clue where to start this one at all integrate 1/(1+cos(x)+sin(x)) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tartaglia Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 Good spot by Jordan With x = tan^6(A) the integral simplifies to / |6tan^5(A)sec^2(A) dA/((tan^3(A)*(1+tan^2(A)))= / / |6tan^2(A)dA / 1/(1+cos(x)+sin(x)) can be done by substituing sinx = 2t/1+t^2 and Cosx = (1-t^2)/(1+t^2) where t = tan(0.5x) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaynos Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 I'd suggest you are seriousely over complicating this. if you just times out the root(x) => [math] \int (x^\frac {1}{2} + x^\frac {5}{6})^{-1} dx[/math] Which is easier... I think :s although I might be talking rubbish :s Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 Assuming Klay is right, [math]\int(x^{\frac{1}{2}}+x^{\frac{5}{6}})^{-1}\cdot dx=\int x^{\frac{-1}{2}}+x^{\frac{-5}{6}}\cdot dx= \frac{x^\frac{1}{2}}{\frac{1}{2}}+\frac{x^\frac{1}{6}}{\frac{1}{6}}+c[/math] I think. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaynos Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 I'd say there's a chance you've done the final integral wrong, not taken the -ve's into account... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tartaglia Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 Since the answer is 6x^(1/6) + 6*arctan(x^(1/6)) + C I would say a tan substitution is necessary Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NeonBlack Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 tree- that's not quite how exponents work. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 meh, care to elaborate? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NeonBlack Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 If I used what you did for exponents, [math](a+b)^2 = a^2+b^2[/math] You can't distribute an exponent. If you have [math](a+b)^{-1}[/math] You cannot say that this is [math]a^{-1}+b^{-1}[/math] That would be the same as saying [math]\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}=\frac{1}{a+b}[/math] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted March 17, 2006 Share Posted March 17, 2006 eep, my bad. I knew that, just missed it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tom Mattson Posted March 21, 2006 Share Posted March 21, 2006 I'd suggest you are seriousely over complicating this. if you just times out the root(x) => [math] \int (x^\frac {1}{2} + x^\frac {5}{6})^{-1} dx[/math] Which is easier... I think :s although I might be talking rubbish :s I do agree that this has been overcomplicated' date=' but I don't see how your suggestion helps. I would say a tan substitution is necessary It isn't. All you have to do is let [imath]u=\sqrt[6]{x}[/imath] in the original integral. Then you can do a partial fraction expansion, as caseclosed had initially surmised. That solution seems a whole lot more obvious to me, but to each his own... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaynos Posted March 21, 2006 Share Posted March 21, 2006 I do agree that this has been overcomplicated' date=' but I don't see how your suggestion helps. It isn't. All you have to do is let [imath']u=\sqrt{x}[/imath] in the original integral. Then you can do a partial fraction expansion, as caseclosed had initially surmised. That solution seems a whole lot more obvious to me, but to each his own... I agree I wasn't thinking when I posted it seems. Sorry for any confussion I caused... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tartaglia Posted March 21, 2006 Share Posted March 21, 2006 Tom - My mind doesn't actually work that way. I just thought Jordan's original idea was smart and unusual The point about the tan substitution is that regardless as to how you do it the final arctan term comes from a direct or implied tan substitution. I didn't really mean to suggest the tan^6(A) substitution was the only one possible Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tom Mattson Posted March 21, 2006 Share Posted March 21, 2006 All you have to do is let [imath]u=\sqrt{x}[/imath] in the original integral. Then you can do a partial fraction expansion' date=' as caseclosed had initially surmised. [/quote'] FYI, there's a typo there. I meant for you to let u equal the 6th root of x, not the square root. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dave Posted March 21, 2006 Share Posted March 21, 2006 Edited that for you so that people don't get confused later on Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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