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Newton's Inverse square law

geordief
in Other Sciences

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I've just one comment to make regarding all the above:

 

“There is no such thing as philosophy-free science; there is only science whose philosophical baggage is taken on board without examination.

—Daniel Dennett

 

 

 

It's one thing to say that there is no such thing as philosophy-free science, but quite another to respond to the questions with all philosophy and no science.

 

With the way science uses "law", does a law have unlimited dominion? Is it possible to actually violate a law of physics?

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