Hi:

 

Let's say I suddenly develop a hypothetical medical condition that causes the cells in my body that normally-synthesize sympathetic-stimulants [such as catecholamines] and pro-inflammatory chemicals [such as histamine and cytokines] to instead synthesize morphine. Second, this medical condition eliminates any/all bodily mechanisms that specifically cause any psychological or psychologically dependence of, addiction to, or tolerance of morphine. Third, this medical condition eliminates any/all bodily mechanisms specifically responsible for withdrawal of morphine. Finally, this medical condition causes the development of mechanisms that prevent there from being any toxic amounts of morphine in any part of the body and also prevents any emergency-causing overdose of morphine.

 

With this medical condition, morphine-overdose is possible but not to the point where it would lead to any medical emergency.

 

Why symptoms would I experience if I were to develop this condition?

 

 

Thanks,

 

GX

 

P.S. I've posted the same question here: http://www.thescienceforum.com/trash-can/27350-ot-what-would-happen-if-pro-inflammatories-pro-sympathetics-were-replaced-morphine.html#post311637

 

This is not a troll but a desperate request for assistance in finding answers to my pseudoscientific questions

Edited March 4, 201213 yr by Green Xenon

The problem with these assumptions is that they defy our current biological knowledge. As such, our current knowledge and extrapolations thereof are not applicable anymore. The consequence is that no meaningful answers can be derived and thus any speculations thereof are pure conjecture.