Genecks Posted January 20, 2010 Share Posted January 20, 2010 (edited) I've the answer understood, but I don't understand why the word "immunological" is being used. Does this have to do with antibody bonding, which would allow usage of the term "immunological"? If so, doesn't that seem biased, because other binding agents could be used? An albino mouse mutant is obtained whose pigment lacks melanin, normally made by an enzyme T. Indeed, the tissue of the mutant lacks all detectable activity for enzyme T. However, a Western blot clearly shows that a protein with immunological properties identical with those of enzyme T is present in the cell of the mutant. How is this possible? My answer: possible amino acid change in the enzyme; however, the enzymes are similar enough that the binding agent binds to the enzyme in question during the western blot. Edited January 20, 2010 by Genecks Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CharonY Posted January 20, 2010 Share Posted January 20, 2010 Yes, it means that the same antibody binds to it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Genecks Posted January 20, 2010 Author Share Posted January 20, 2010 Yes, it means that the same antibody binds to it. Alright, thanks. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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