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Integral Gives Different Answers on Polar Coordinates


Flemish

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Hello, 

I have been stuck on this Math problem and wanted some help. This is the formula for finding out the surface area:

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Using this formula, you should arrive on something like this (the outer limits are pi/4 and 0, the program didn't let me input).

 

 

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Focusing on the inner integral, by rearranging you arrive on this

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If you integrate this, the answer will always be zero:

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The answer to this always has to be zero, because inputting the limits inside the square root would give zero. However, if you switched to polar coordinates, you'd arrive on a different answer:

 

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Which would give you an answer of 2(pi)(a^2). I searched around and people were saying that answers mean different things in different coordinate systems. I understand this, but if region R is a constant area throughout the different coordinate systems, then an answer of zero in the cartesian plane would suggest that the surface area is zero. Meaning that R hasn't have any surface area (assuming R is a constant area through coordinate systems), then no matter the coordinate system, the answer should be the same. Where did I go wrong?

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1 hour ago, Flemish said:

The answer to this always has to be zero

The y in the denominator changes sign. You're integrating over y, not x.

Your inner integral is wrong. Try again.

Start with [math]b^2 \equiv a^2 - x^2[/math].

Edited by Lorentz Jr
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7 hours ago, Genady said:

The first stop: I think these limits are wrong.

Sorry, I meant from a to -a

7 hours ago, Lorentz Jr said:

The y in the denominator changes sign. You're integrating over y, not x.

Your inner integral is wrong. Try again.

Start with b2a2x2 .

Sir, I don't get what you mean by start with b^2 = a^2- x^2, are you referring to the limits or a substitution?  If its a substitution then how would it fix our problem?

If your talking about the limits, here is how I got them:

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My logic is that because its a circle, the y-values have to be given by this.

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On 1/2/2023 at 8:45 AM, Lorentz Jr said:

No more OP....

df = -2y dy, so f-1/2 df would be -2 f-1/2 y dy.

But the integral in the problem is f-1/2 dy, which would be - f-1/2 df / 2y.

So still not f-1/2 df.

Thank you sir! I understand where your coming from. Sorry my brain wasn't working before.

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