Is it autosomal dominant or X linked dominant?

Study the pedigree and write down your observations. My attempt notes three pertinent facts:

1. Higher prevalence of affected females.

2. All daughters of the affected father are affected AND none of his sons are affected.

3. The mother of an affected son is also affected.

From there the answer should be obvious (I don't know the homework rules here, so I'll leave the final step up to you).

It is what it is and we can only speculate about what it could be. Imho, it can be both. Question should be redefined: "Does it, statistically seen, concern most likely an X-chromosomal or autosomal bound property?"

 

It may be very well that the answer to the question would be X-chromosomal bound, however, I think it would be even more of an exercise to figure out why it could be both; try figuring out why it may be an autosomal property as well: we see that each time, 1/2 of the children of affected persons are also at least carriers.