Are the spin states of all quanta in-phase, throughout the universe, when viewed from the perspective of Minkowski spacetime ?

 

edit: I understand that Minkowski spacetime is relatively "flat" which I why I frame the question as such. If Minkowski spacetime is not flat then please feel free to make suggestions on how universal in-phase spin states for all matter might be shown as being true.

Edited July 24, 201411 yr by radicalsymmetry

From the way I interpret the phrase, no. Spin states are not really covered by relativity, and they are not inherently in phase in a QM system. And within QM you can determine the total spin and spin projection but the operators for individual axes don't commute, so asking if two spins are in phase is nonsensical. You can't know.

 

Unless you have some specific meaning for in-phase spin states; an example might help.

Yes, it's quite nonsensical, I see.

 

The only way it would be possible is if dimensionality is a second-order property of time where mass is a residual artefact of an eternal, omnipresent, coordinate which is (the omnipresent coordinate) imminent as the potentiality of a dualism (i.e first-order manifold) to become apparent as the observable universe i.e propagation of historical mass *is* space-time (except at c.)

 

That's not science, but philosophy, so please consider it as such. Thanks.

 

Unless you have some specific meaning for in-phase spin states; an example might help.

 

 

No. Your interpretation is correct, and in order for my OP to make sense; frequency would have to become a third-order characteristic of space-time where space(time) is a second-order residual artefact occurring at c.

Edited July 25, 201411 yr by radicalsymmetry