I have a question about inelastic collisions. Would a perfectly (or nearly perfect) inelastic collision be able to break an object itself or another object it touches?

Do you mean if one of the objects can break in an inelastic collision? Sure. Drop a glass and it will inelastically collide with the floor, and probably break.

Do you mean if one of the objects can break in an inelastic collision? Sure. Drop a glass and it will inelastically collide with the floor, and probably break.

How can we numerically show that it is an inelastic collision?

How can we numerically show that it is an inelastic collision?

 

If it doesn't bounce back up to its original height then some KE was lost. If you hear it, or it breaks or bends, then some KE was lost to do that. If it heats up, some KE was lost. Total energy is conserved, even if KE is not. That's why eleastic collisions are a special case.

 

To show it numerically you need to quantify how much energy was lost, unless an inequality is sufficient.