DrmDoc Posted June 5, 2011 Share Posted June 5, 2011 Is the line between 'feeling informed by thought' and 'thought itself reflecting on feeling' just a linguistic distinction or is there some measurable physical basis for it? If a conscious entity which is conceptually aware of its mortality feels lethal pain, is this pain experienced with an additional soupcon of terror because of the awareness that it can imply death, as opposed to the pure sensation of lethal pain in a salamander which has no notion of death? I don't think we can definitively say that "a salamander has no notion of death". What we can say with some certainty is that its responses--physiological and behavioral--suggests that a salamander may feel pain and certain emotions on an instinctual level. However, I do agee that there is a significant distinction between the basal experience of fear or pain and experiencing same when informed by intellect. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Katherine Reeds Posted June 15, 2011 Share Posted June 15, 2011 Emotions are caused by the subconscious in our mind while the physiological changes they cause originate from the unconscious process that occur in brain Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DrmDoc Posted June 15, 2011 Share Posted June 15, 2011 Emotions are caused by the subconscious in our mind while... That is a very definitive statment. What is your basis? the physiological changes they cause originate from the unconscious process that occur in brain Is this merely your opinion or is it based on some evidence in brain study? Please, elaborate. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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