Guest bgjyd834 Posted April 27, 2011 Share Posted April 27, 2011 Let’s say, state A is the opposite of state B and state B is the opposite of state A. Normally if each of the state has an opposite results of themselves to an extent that the result of a mathematical method in state A can be obtain in state B and the result of a mathematical method in state B can also be obtain in state A. -Is this in relation with quantum entanglement in any way? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted April 27, 2011 Share Posted April 27, 2011 Sort of. Entanglement means that the states of two particles are related, but until one particle is measured the states are undetermined. Measurement of one determines the state of both. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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