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Ok, when my biology teacher gave us a big lecture on teen pregnancy and STD's, she said that the lubricant emitted from the penis during sex has more sperm than the ejaculate. I have a hard time believing this because she is _very_ biased in this area. Can anyone verify this for me?

id imagine shes wrong.

I would imagine that this pre-ejaculate was designed mainly for lubrication purposes, and that semen still remains the main fluid in which sperm is transferred to the "other spectrum".

 

This link has some interesting info on how there can actually be sperm in pre-ejaculate:

http://www.coolnurse.com/sex_faqs25.htm

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Thanks mezarashi, that link explained it.

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