Sid_Rat Posted July 8, 2005 Share Posted July 8, 2005 Is there a relationship between inertial mass, rest mass and temperature? If a body's inertial mass and rest mass are the same then presumably its temperature is exactly zero degrees Kelvin (hypothetically of course). Might it then be possible to deduce the temperature of a body if you already knew the values both for rest and inertial mass ? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
J.C.MacSwell Posted July 8, 2005 Share Posted July 8, 2005 Is there a relationship between inertial mass, rest mass and temperature? If a body's inertial mass and rest mass are the same then presumably its temperature is exactly zero degrees Kelvin (hypothetically of course). Might it then be possible to deduce the temperature of a body if you already knew the values both for rest and inertial mass ? I could be wrong, but I always assumed the rest mass of an object to include it's temperature (or energy associated with temperature). So the rest mass of an object would be greater than that of the sum of it's parts (constituent particles) assuming the above is correct. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Martin Posted July 8, 2005 Share Posted July 8, 2005 I could be wrong' date=' but I always assumed the rest mass of an object to include it's temperature (or energy associated with temperature). So the rest mass of an object would be greater than that of the sum of it's parts (constituent particles) assuming the above is correct.[/quote'] I believe that's right. as you heat a block of iron up, its inertia increases Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Martin Posted July 8, 2005 Share Posted July 8, 2005 If a body's inertial mass and rest mass are the same ... Sid, there are actually different definitions of mass out there alive and kicking in the physics literature. People have long pointless arguments about which is the "right" definition. if you want to reserve the idea of "rest mass" for particles then it is the inertia of the particle at rest which is something of an idealization because you can only measure it approximately I wouldn't restrict the idea. I would consider an ordinary (?) object like an iron cannonball to have a rest mass, or simply let's say a MASS. And that would be its inertia at rest, at whatever temperature it happens to be. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sid_Rat Posted July 8, 2005 Author Share Posted July 8, 2005 I think I sort of get the idea. How about this then ........is there any evidence of a relationship between relative velovity and temperature? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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