Guest uraj Posted January 18, 2005 Share Posted January 18, 2005 Just read the news on the Parkinson's Gene - they have found a mutation on a gene in about 5-8% of Parkinsons patients. Can anyone tell me why this is statistically (or otherwise) significant? from http://www.healthtalk.ca/parkinsons_gene_011805_37982.php "Finding the same mutation in a single gene accounting for such a large percentage of patients is quite remarkable," said Dr. William C. Nichols, lead researcher of the first study. also at: http://www.reuters.co.uk/newsArticle.jhtml?type=healthNews&storyID=7348093 Thanks, J Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MolecularMan14 Posted January 18, 2005 Share Posted January 18, 2005 I would have to ask, what percent of the healthy (or at least Parkinson's free) population has this mutuation as well? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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