devrimci_kürt Posted January 12, 2009 Share Posted January 12, 2009 Why 2 multiply 2 is equal 4?proof? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted January 12, 2009 Share Posted January 12, 2009 A quick proof, using The Field Axioms and definitions of 2 := 1+1, 3 := 2+1 and 4 := 3+1. First by the distributive law for multiplication and addition. [math]2 \times 2 = 2 \times (1+1) = (2\times 1) + (2 \times 1 )[/math] Then with the identity property of unity [math](2 \times 1) + (2 \times 1 ) = 2 + 2[/math] Then with the associative property of addition [math]2+2 = 2+ (1+1) = (2+1)+1 = 3 + 1 = 4[/math] Q.E.D. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dave Posted January 13, 2009 Share Posted January 13, 2009 Any reason for such a question? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
devrimci_kürt Posted January 13, 2009 Author Share Posted January 13, 2009 because ,Mathematical proof is one of the most important aspects of formal mathematics unfortunately,they (turk students) didn’t really know how to apply the definition even though they can remember it. only formula in turkey ... but proof teaches us to think in very precise terms, which is a necessity in our field.. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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