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gre

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Posts posted by gre

  1. The Schumann resonance is a very beautiful phenom, and I like the fact that you are learning stuff like this and sharing it.

    I agree the Schumann resonance is a very interesting phenomena, and I appreciate your comments.

     

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schumann_resonance

     

    You are right that the cycle-type wavelength is key to figuring out standing wave modes.

     

    In this case it is the earth's circumference (at the ionosphere level).

    [/Quote]

     

    This seems strange to me .. maybe I am still missing something. If the 7.83 Hz Schumann resonance is related to the Earth's circumference at the ionosphere level. Wouldn't the fundamental (mode) frequency be closer to 7 Hz?

     

    Since, the Schumann_wavelength (cycle-type) = c / 7.83 = 3.828e7 meters

     

    And the earth's radius is 6.372797e6 m and the ionosphere is about 300,000 m..

     

    Wouldn't the standing wavelength be: 2*pi*(6.37e6 + 300,000) with a frequency of:

    f = (c / (6.37e6 + 300,000)) = 7.15 hz.

  2. Thanks Martin. I am definitely having a hard time "shifting mental gears".

     

    Here is something else I'm wondering about (might be the same situation), maybe you can help me.

     

    The Schumann frequency of the earth is about 7.5 Hz. The wavelength of a 7.5hz electromagnetic wave is about 4e7 m , which is the circumference of the Earth. Why is this? This makes wavelength seem more fundamental.

     

    7.5 Hz * 4e7 m = 3e8 (m/s)

  3. Tell me if this makes any sense.

     

    The Planck angular frequency is:

    planck_angular_frequency = 1.85487e43 (1/s)

     

    The non-angular Planck frequency would then be:

     

    planck_frequency = (1.85487e43 (1/s) / (2*pi)) = 2.952104e42 Hz

     

    Which makes sense with (E=h*f): planck_frequency * h = planck_energy

     

     

    Wouldn't the Planck wavelength then be:

    planck_wavelength = (c / (planck_frequency)) = 1.01552129e-34 m (?)

     

     

    Then If you divide this "wavelength" by (2*pi) you get the Planck Length:

    planck_wavelength / (2*pi) = Planck_Length

     

    Wouldn't this imply that the Planck Volume is spherical, and Planck length is a radius?

  4. light propagates through space assuming that the source of the light has not diminshed and also through an atternating wave pattern

     

    light alternates between a vertical and horizantal wave pattern

     

    both push each other outwards into space

     

    its been a long time that I found out about this , so I'm sure somebody will correct me on this , on the details

     

    You are describing the electromagnetic sine wave.

     

    Here is a snip from Wiki (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetic_radiation#Properties)

     

    "Electromagnetic waves can be imagined as a self-propagating transverse oscillating wave of electric and magnetic fields. This diagram shows a plane linearly polarized wave propagating from right to left. The electric field is in a vertical plane, the magnetic field in a horizontal plane."

     

    I'm not sure if I believe the "self-propagating" part. Is this accurate?

     

    This description is also missing the spin aspect of a photon .. Which I'm not sure even has a physical/ real world representation.

  5.  

    first define " vacuum "

     

    and see if this makes sense towards what you have written above

     

     

    I believe vacuum and space can be considered the same thing.

     

    They can also be considered a dielectric medium with certain properties which regulate the speed of light.

     

    What I'm wondering now is: How does light travel (or propagate) through this "medium"? I remember reading somewhere that virtual particles interact to propagate light through space, but I can't remember the details.

  6. Yes, [math]4\pi[/math] can mean such an integration has taken place. But does it have a physical significance? It may just mean you defined something as a surface element and then integrated over the whole surface. You have arbitrarily-defined terms, and you can put the constants anywhere. What would happen if we redefined the Coulomb (assuming for the moment that it was the SI base unit) to be [math]2\sqrt{\pi}[/math] larger? The [math]4\pi[/math] in the SI version of Coulomb's law goes away, but nothing physical has changed. Some other units may end up having to be redefined as a result, but since they are arbitrary, why does it matter?

     

     

     

    4 pi just looks like a conversion factor going from a spherical surface area of a field, to cubical surface area.

     

     

    Since coulombs constant is:

     

    1 / (4*pi * (Pt^2 * Qp^2 / Pm * Pl^3 * 4 * pi)

     

    After the 4pi(s) cancel out. Wouldn't you then be working with a cubic surface area or volume?

  7. While playing with Planck constants I noticed the following:

     

    The electric constant can be figured from: ((Tp^2 * Qp^2) / (Mp * Lp^3)) * (1/(4*pi))

    Where,

    Tp = Planck Time , Qp = Planck Charge, Mp = Planck Mass, Lp = Planck Length

     

    And the magnetic constant can be determined with:

    ((Mp * Lp) / (Qp^2)) * (4*pi)

     

     

    Anyone know why the "4 pi" pops up like this?

  8. Without time space can't exist, and vice versa.

     

    So without time ... space couldn't exist, and matter/anti-matter couldn't exist either. So I doubt you can say time is an illusion. Why do you suggest this?

     

     

    Maybe you could say time can't exist without matter (?).. Which leads to the possibility that time is a field-like property of matter.

  9. You could consider space-time a media though since it can have properties such as electric permittivity and permeability. True vacuum doesn't contain matter, but that doesn't mean it doesn't exist I don't think.

  10. No data, I'm just looking for the equation to figure it out. I just have: J = A*T^2 * e^(-W/kT)

    where, J=current density, A=Richardson's contant,T=temp in kelvins, W=work function.

     

    Edit: I meant A= Richardson's constant


    Merged post follows:

    Consecutive posts merged

    I've read the the thermionic work function is usually right around 1/2 the elements ionization energy.. But, I'm still looking for an equation and a definite answer ... Can anyone help?


    Merged post follows:

    Consecutive posts merged

    What is required for hydrogen to even have free electrons? I guess at a certain temperature and pressure ti becomes a metal in theory .. But what temperature and pressure this theorized to be?

  11. Looks to me as if the results are VERY variable...

     

     

    The colours will depend on the CRT used. The shapes will depend on the magnet, it's shape, orientation, distance from the screen etc... There are ALOT of variables.

     

    I'm mostly wondering about the general shape of the field/electrons, not so much the colors. Apparently the TV crt produces a different pattern than a monitor crt (if the video above is using a regular 2-pole magnet) ..

     

    Here's a video by MIT's physics department. This was done with a older TV.

    http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YbzBTdU7iRU&feature=related

     

     

    Another question:

    Would the temperature of the magnet also affect the pattern shown on the screen? For example, if the magnet was cooled to (near) absolute 0, would the pattern still be the same?

     

    Thanks,

     

    Greg

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