sciencedummy

ok, so work is the transfer of energy, the object applies a force through the distance... would the distance be the distance the object travels before hitting the wall? but in the end the object does not penetrate through the wall, so can it be said that the object covered no distance? but if that is the case then there is no work and there is no kinetic energy.

so if i had the distance, i would find acceleration and then i could find force... what would the kinetic energy represent tho in accordance with hitting the wall?

does this mean F=mv/t? to find impact force? what if you went ahead to use Ek=1/2mv^2 to find the kinetic energy, would that relate to the impact force or would that be totally irrelevant.

you exert force on the earth right, but then there is a normal force that is equal to the force that you exert on the earth. it has to be equal or else you would've bounced into space or you would've sunk into the earth right? i hope this helps... im not sure if im making any sense here...

wow, this is so hard to understand... lol, i just got confused by going through the page... lol inertia is opposes acceleration? i thought that when something is moving at a specific velocity, it keeps going at that velocity.

I was reading another topic on something like this by budullewraagh... but i want to change the circumstances where: if there is an object with a mass of, say, 80kg traveling at a rate of 50m/s, hypothetically, and it hypothetically crashes into a wall, would you happen to know, offhand, the force of impact? the object stops after it hits the wall. I was reading about F=ma and E=1/2mv^2, but im not sure how that would work.