Johnny5 Posted March 16, 2005 Share Posted March 16, 2005 I have heard that GR is founded upon the principle of equivalence, but I've never seen a proof of this statement, so here is my question: Is it possible to explicitly prove either of the following: 1. If GR equation is true then (priniciple of equivalence is true) 2. If (priniciple of equivalence is true) then GR equation is true. If the principle of equivalence is an assumption of GR, then that should lead to the equation, and conversely if someone understands the equation, then they should be able to derive the assumption upon which it is based. Thank you in advance Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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