cyruseternity Posted November 4, 2014 Share Posted November 4, 2014 We know that avg speed and avg velocities can or cannot be equal....but how is the magnitude of instantaneous velocity always equal to that of inst speed... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
elfmotat Posted November 4, 2014 Share Posted November 4, 2014 The magnitude of velocity is equal to speed by definition. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cyruseternity Posted November 4, 2014 Author Share Posted November 4, 2014 Ya i agree but thats true only for motion in a straight line....they r not equal when there is a change in direction...!! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
elfmotat Posted November 4, 2014 Share Posted November 4, 2014 At every time t an object will have an associated velocity vector, v(t). We define the speed of the object at time t as |v(t)|. It's a definition, so it's not really something you can ask "why" about. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cyruseternity Posted November 4, 2014 Author Share Posted November 4, 2014 Hmm...got it...thanks Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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