jasoncurious Posted December 14, 2012 Share Posted December 14, 2012 Hi all, this is how my lecturer derive exergy: 1st law efficiency=W/Q Carnot efficiency=(T1-T2)/T1 W/Q=(T1-T2)/T1 W=(Q*(T1-T2))/T1 The W above refers to useful work. My question is, when we formulate the 1st law efficiency, do we have in mind that it is a reversible device (that we can equalize it with the Carnot efficiency)? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
timo Posted December 14, 2012 Share Posted December 14, 2012 There is some argument/proof that the Carnot efficiency is the best you can get. So I believe what the engineers have in mind is an effective device, not necessarily a reversible one. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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