I read that migraine is caused by inhibition followed by hyperactivity, associated with vasodilation followed by vasoconstriction. How does this work? And how does depolarization fit in all this?

http://www.bellaireneurology.com/headaches/migr_pain.html

 

and also

 

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Migraine#Depolarization_theory

Neither resolves the issues I have mentioned. The former didn't mention polarization at all, and the latter was where I found the information which raised the questions I mentioned. Thanks anyway, though.

okay, after more searching, this is the best site that i could find.

 

http://www.lef.org/protocols/health_concerns/migraine_01.htm

Thanks, it was an interesting read. The basic idea of the theory proposed in that article, however, I already knew. The only thing that wasn't clear to me was the involvement of depolarization, which is the only thing which wasn't mentioned in the article.

 

I wouldn't recommend searching for articles if you don't know the answer, since I've been searching myself and, furthermore, I could search further, too, if I'd think that would be any help.

 

If someone knows the answer, though, please do share.

the reason these articles don't explain what you want is because they don't know. i couldn't find anything explaining why a migraine happens and next to nothing for a depolarization theory.

 

sorry i couldn't help more.