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Stupid question about Bell's theorem

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Everybody says that the experimental violation of Bell's inequalities validates quantum mechanics and denies local realism. But Bell's theorem is based on the standard formulas for correlations and expected values, which are very intuitive but still arbitrary.

Has anybody ever mentioned that local realism and violation of Bell's inequalities can be compatible if we change some rules for calculating proabilities and correlations?

What kind of changes did you have in mind?

  • Author
What kind of changes did you have in mind?

I don't know, I am asking. I suppose the changes would involve some basic assumptions about calculating probabilities. For example, waht would happen if a diffrent formula is used for joint probabilities:

P(A or B) diffent from P(A)+P(B)-P(A&B)

YOu get my idea...

  • 3 weeks later...

What is "stupid" is not asking questions. I've been wondering about the role of the polarizers in the detections, whether their role has been fully accounted.

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