Sarahisme Posted May 21, 2006 Share Posted May 21, 2006 hey i am having a bit of trouble with this problem, as the course textbook has nothing on doing these problems using green's functions (all we have is a few slides of dodgey lecture notes)... anyways... the problem.. so to start with, for part (a) now from what i can gather, the BVP has a unique solution if and only if the corresponding HBVP (homogeneous boundary value problem) y''=0, y(0)=0, y(1) = 0 has no solution other than the trivial one, y(x) = 0. i guess then the associated HLDE (homogenous linear differential equation) needs to be solved... so y''(0) = 0 so we look for answers of the form y(x) = Ax + B then the left boundary condition (y(0) = 0 ) leads to u(x) = Ax is this the right way to go about things? cheers -Sarah Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 22, 2006 Author Share Posted May 22, 2006 hmm ok, how does this look..? for the 'appropritate Green's Function' for part (a): The left boundary condition gives: u(x) = x and the right boundary condition gives: v(x) = x - 1 so the wronskian = W(x) = uv' - u'v = x - (x-1) = 1 so u,v are linearly independent. then the greens function is [math] G(x,e) = x(\epsilon - 1) [/tex] for [tex] 0 \leq x \leq \epsilon [/math] [math] G(x,e) = \epsilon(x - 1) [/tex] for [tex] \epsilon \leq x \leq 1 [/math] So the solution to the associated boundary value problem with homogenous conditions is: [math] y(x) = \int_0^1G(x,\epsilon)f(\epsilon)d\epsilon [/math] so then is the solution to the orginal BVP something like [math] y(x) = \int_0^1G(x,\epsilon)f(\epsilon)d\epsilon + A +Bx [/math] ????? this is where i think i get quite lost (maybe before here if i have already made a giant mistake somewhere! ) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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