Sarahisme Posted May 7, 2006 Share Posted May 7, 2006 Hi all, i have done this question which involves capillary waves. where we started with [math] \lambda \propto \lambda^{-3/2} [/math] then i found that [math] v_{phase} = \frac{\lambda^{-1/2}}{2\pi} [/math] and [math] v_{group} = \frac{3\lambda^{-1/2}}{4\pi} [/math] and thus taking the ratio of the two gives that the group velocity is 1.5 times the the phase velocity. I am them asked to explain the meaning of this result, and i am a little unsure of how to answer that.... any ideas/hints etc.? Cheers Sarah Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted May 8, 2006 Author Share Posted May 8, 2006 nm, got it! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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