Hi all,

 

i have done this question which involves capillary waves. where we started with

[math] \lambda \propto \lambda^{-3/2} [/math]

 

then i found that [math] v_{phase} = \frac{\lambda^{-1/2}}{2\pi} [/math]

 

and

 

[math] v_{group} = \frac{3\lambda^{-1/2}}{4\pi} [/math]

 

and thus taking the ratio of the two gives that the group velocity is 1.5 times the the phase velocity. I am them asked to explain the meaning of this result, and i am a little unsure of how to answer that.... any ideas/hints etc.?

 

Cheers

 

Sarah

nm, got it!