right-brain equivalent of Wernicke's area

[gib65]

I have a theory and I want to know if you neuro-experts can confirm it. I believe that music is to our emotions as spoken language is to our thoughts. That is, spoken language is processed by our auditory cortex and translated into concepts. Music is also processed by our auditory cortex but translated into emotions. So my theory is that music and language serve the same function: communication - but one communicates concepts whereas the other communicates emotions. If this is right, there should be some kind of lateralization in the brain for such functions. That is to say, if spoken language is processed by Wernicke's area in the left hemisphere, there should be a part of the brain directly across in the right hemisphere for processing music and stimulating emotions. Can anybody confirm this?

[aguy2]

By 'Wernicke's area' do you mean that liitle walnut shaped gizmo that looks like it was pinned on the left side at the last minute?

 

aguy2

[gib65]

By 'Wernicke's area' do you mean that liitle walnut shaped gizmo that looks like it was pinned on the left side at the last minute?

 

aguy2

 

Uh... sure. You know' date=' Wernicke's area - the small section at the junction between the temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes on the left side of the brain. It seems to be involved in language comprehension.

 

Here's a link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wernicke%27s_area.

[starbug1]

I have a theory and I want to know if you neuro-experts can confirm it. I believe that music is to our emotions as spoken language is to our thoughts. That is, spoken language is processed by our auditory cortex and translated into concepts. Music is also processed by our auditory cortex but translated into emotions. So my theory is that music and language serve the same function: communication - but one communicates concepts whereas the other communicates emotions. If this is right, there should be some kind of lateralization in the brain for such functions. That is to say, if spoken language is processed by Wernicke's area in the left hemisphere, there should be a part of the brain directly across in the right hemisphere for processing music and stimulating emotions. Can anybody confirm this?

 

Isn't it said that music is a universal language? no, wait, that was math. It must just be the language that ties the world together. Don't know if that's right.

Anyway, communication--if you mean the combined functions of speech and music--has an undeniable affect on both our concepts and emotions. Music and suggestion have effect, to good or bad, on our emotions, and it's been proven through mass-hypnosis and post-hynoptic suggestions that language alters our perceptions and concepts. See: Indian rope trick for a perfect example

 

So far our knowledge of the brain has shown us that ambiguous functions (such as emotion and some psychological problems) are never dispersed equaly or laterally. There is a left and right hemisphere, but even so many functions such as speech, computation, and creativity utilize areas on both sides of the brain. Also, functions tend to jump between the two hemispheres. While communication and 'auditory processing' is a left-hemisphere function, musical ability is usually found to be a right-hemisphere function. I'm just not sure whether the auditory cortex on the left side or the 'creative centers' on the right side process emotion; I'm guessing its a little of both.

 

Because music is in the right hemisphere, it is not subject to the effects of aphasia, the inability to recognize spoken words. This is the cause for some autisitic savants, those who have virtually no vocabulary but can excel and even become virtuosos in music or artistic creativity. This fact also leads us to believe that, because music recognition isn't faltered through aphasia, emotion thereof is unaffected.

 

I agree with you, though I may not have confirmed it completely.

[aguy2]

Music and suggestion have effect, to good or bad, on our emotions

 

Wouldn't the effects of music on the emotions be more like 'augmenting' them? Or reminding us of past emotional states and then 'augmenting' them?

 

aguy2

[gib65]

Anyway, communication--if you mean the combined functions of speech and music--has an undeniable affect on both our concepts and emotions.

 

I guess, in a certain sense, spoken language can stir up our emotions and music can make us think. I still think music is better suited for effecting us emotionally though - just as spoken language is better suited for communicating ideas.

 

So far our knowledge of the brain has shown us that ambiguous functions (such as emotion and some psychological problems) are never dispersed equaly or laterally. There is a left and right hemisphere, but even so many functions such as speech, computation, and creativity utilize areas on both sides of the brain. Also, functions tend to jump between the two hemispheres.

 

Well, to a degree.

 

While communication and 'auditory processing' is a left-hemisphere function, musical ability[/i'] is usually found to be a right-hemisphere function. I'm just not sure whether the auditory cortex on the left side or the 'creative centers' on the right side process emotion; I'm guessing its a little of both.

 

Ah! Let's be careful. Let's not confuse musical listening with musical ability with emotions. What I'm curious about is strictly musical listening and what part of the brain (most of the time and generally) it is associated with. Yes, my question does concern emotion as well, but as far as this is concerned, I'm not that interested in where it is found in the brain (although it would be interesting to know).

 

Because music is in the right hemisphere, it is not subject to the effects of aphasia[/url'], the inability to recognize spoken words.

 

This is true.

 

This is the cause for some autisitic savants, those who have virtually no vocabulary but can excel and even become virtuosos in music or artistic creativity. This fact also leads us to believe that, because music recognition isn't faltered through aphasia, emotion thereof is unaffected.

 

Makes sense to me.

 

I agree with you, though I may not have confirmed it completely.

 

Fair enough. Although this doesn't QUITE answer my initial question, we are headed in the right direction.