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Real Analysis. Measurable functions

Meital
in Analysis and Calculus

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Can someone help me with the following proof:

 

Suppose f ,g: X -> [- infinity, + infinity] are measurable. Prove that the sets

{ x : f(x) < g(x) } , {x: f(x) = g(x) } are measurable.

  • Author

I figured it out..I don't know why I thought it was difficult! Thanks though :)

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