Well, we have all seen the research and articles that claim dopamine (D) is increased when chocolate is consumed. But let's examine a step further as most articles I've read have been lacking in control and quality.

 

D causes us to feel good. Yeah? But, does feeling good, or doing/eating something we like, cause D to rise? If so, isn't it a possibility that when someone who loves chocolate consumes it, the D levels rise but it's not necessarily the chocolate causing this, and instead the act of doing something rewarding? Consider: would the D levels still rise in someone who despises chocolate? That seems to contradict itself as you wouldn't be "feeling good" if you were eating something you hated the taste of.

 

Can it be that it's only the act of eating/doing something you like that causes the rise in D and the chocolate is merely a substitute for anything you cherish individually? With chocolate being incredibly popular, it's no wonder most studies would show an increase in D after chocolate consumption; 9 out of 10 of their participants will already have a chocolate preference.

 

Thoughts?

Selective anandamide binding may activate dopaminergic neurotransmission.

I will explain what dopamine is. Because there all wrong with this and I will prove this here. I'm in an queue but this is important knowledge.

 

Antiphychotic medication for example, block the dopamine recoptors. The reverse effect you get with the use of cocaine for edxample, hyper and more.

 

Chocolate can effect that the brain receptors would make free more serotonine. This will make you happy.