occam

I believe it was Paul Dirac. “hbar” is usually known as the reduced Planck constant h/2pi associated with "spin" (which is another topic). Planck values arise from the interaction of the fundamental constants G, c, and h. However has anyone noticed the anomaly created by the use of hbar? Planck length and Planck time have the same relationship as wavelength to frequency, but after that things go downhill! This discrepancy can be shown by setting a wavelength as equal to the Planck length and comparing the values obtained by the standard equivalents, with those obtained using the Planck equations as Table 1.1: Table 1.1 wavelength (lambda) 1.6162524577E-35 Planck length (lp) √(ћG/c3) 1.6162524577E-35 frequency l/c 5.3912378866E-44 Planck time (tp)√(ћG/c5) 5.3912378866E-44 Energy hf 1.2290440710E+10 Planck energy (Ep) √ћc5/G 1.9560843918E+09 Mass E/c2 1.3674959545E-07 Planck Mass (Mp) √ћc/G 2.1764374082E-08 Temperature E/k 8.9019209427E+32 Planck temperature (Tp) √(ћc5/(G*k2) 1.4167847210E+32 If however the equations are reworked using the full value of h, the resulting equivalents are shown in Table 1.2: Table 1.2 wavelength (l) 4.0513441094E-35 Planck length (lp) √(hG/c3) 4.0513441094E-35 frequency l/c 1.3513829322E-43 Planck time (tp)√(hG/c5) 1.3513829322E-43 Energy hf 4.9031764441E+09 Planck energy (Ep) √hc5/G 4.9031764441E+09 Mass E/c2 5.4555195454E-08 Planck Mass (Mp) √hc/G 5.4555195454E-08 Temperature E/k 3.5513526408E+32 Planck temperature (Tp) √(hc5/(G*k2) 3.5513526408E+32 using hbar The product of “Planck Mass” andd “Planck Time” is 1.173369-51.Kg.seconds However using just “h” the value becomes 7.372496-51 kg.s, If mass is proportional to energy, as E = mc2 then “mass” should also have a value of “Planck’s constant”, which dimensionally would be Kilogram-seconds, which is necessarily h/c2. thus the two values are: “hE” relating to “Energy” has the value 6.62606896 x 10-34 J.s “hM” relating to “mass” has the value 7.37249599975914 x10-51.kg.s. Isn’t that interesting? Occam