lqg

there is approximatiom of pi with phi: 1/√(φ)= 3.144605511~π as you can see it's only 2 decimals accurate.

it should be of this form a=b(mod c) (which is like this (a-b)/c) you should point from what you reduct.

ive got this book and yes it's a great book indeed.

no body seems to reply to this thread and to point to me that my proof is not true, thanks (-:

i said that the letter is the problem but it's solved by the former claim.

here's a thought about points. in a line there are infinite points and so is in space. does it mean we should deduct that a line is a space? i think not because in space there are lines and because in lines there are infinite points so does space. from this space isnt a line but is composed of it. i hope my reasoning isnt fallsed.

now lets try: 2n+1>5 n>2 (2n+1)^2-25/8 (2n+1+5)*(2n+1-5)/8 (2n+6)*(2n-4)/8 now n is an even number greater than 2 and 2n+6 and 2n-4 are also even numbers and their multiplication is also even when you divide even by even you get an integer from this the number given is diviseable by 8.

wait a minute. do you want to tell me that a graviton isnt a boson?

no, gravitons (which havent yet been detected) are not electrons. they arent even in the same group of family graviton should be a boson and electron is a fermion.

i made a thread about this in physicsforums: http://physicsforums.com/showthread.php?s=&threadid=4013 btw thanks kedas for the solution.

shouldnt it be ln(1+x/1)/2?

have you seen the video?

therefore a line could be cut into other lines in infinity ways. it's called the cantor's comb.

another one that stated that time is an illusion is julian barbour. you can read about him in his webpage: http://www.platonia.com

just wanted to comment that lambda_4=lambda_H because y is 1. another thing does the electromagnetic triangle has physical significance?