jeremyhfht

Actually I do have a slight dislexia, thanks for using it as an insult.

This explains a lot. I am hereby ending this discussion. I no longer have the patience nor the will to persist.

It's kind of sad how often people format. I haven't needed to format my computer in over two years. It runs just as fast as a recently formatted one (thanks to my changes).

Excepting user errors, the only reason you would have to format is because of the registry. As it grows, so too do slowdowns. Since a lot of Microsoft applications end up scanning the whole registry every time they run (or so it seems). Fortunately a registry cleaner does a good job of cleaning out the useless registry entries.

I did not say that our intelligence evolving is proof of psychic abilities. I did explain that evolution of intelligence could allow us some abilities we falsely consider metaphysical or "psychic".

 

Yes you did:

In fact that is a good argument proving that evolution IS the driving cause of it. It's why we're evolving towards furthering our intelligence...

I'm sorry' date=' but no I did not. That paragraph (even though taken out of context) explains that evolution is the cause abilities like telekinetics through evolving our intelligence. If you think otherwise, just realize you're disagreeing with the person that wrote it.

Telekinesis and Remote Viewing (the two abilities you have been talking about) are commonly referred to as "psychic powers". So 1) I am not redefining what Psychic Powers are and 2) The effects you describe are very closely related to the descriptions as they are considered under the term psychic powers.

 

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Telekinesis

Have a look down near the bottom under the heading: Psychokinesis in popular culture.

As I explained (and you ignored), under my definition they are NOT psychic powers. Under the current vague definition (ergo, belief that they aren't physical but metaphysical), then sure that applies. But I fail to see how any of it applies here when I redefined the terms first and foremost.

Therefore, you have to prove it incorrect based on my new definitions. As well as stop using the word "psychic" to describe them since, under the definition, they are not psychic.

You are caliming that telekinetic powers (and other "psychic powers" if they exist) are dependent on our ability to use self control. However, as there is no known proof of actual psychic powers actually existing, how can you make the claim that they are connected?

I already explained them earlier. I absolutely refuse to repeat myself. If you must refresh your memory, reread what I have written. I believe I wrote a very thorough explanation as to why possible telekinetic ability would be tied to our self control.

You claim that telekinetics requires us to exert "control". Therefore, if we have the ability to control ourselves, this is therefore admissible as proof that telekinetics exists.

Logical Fallacy: Straw Man. I said telekinetics, if it exists, would require us control over the autonomous function it would be a part of. Which would mean self control would be required to use whatever function it's part of. Self control itself does absolutely nothing to prove telekinetics exists. I merely used it to describe how telekinetics could be harnessed.

I said nothing about the "therefore" shit. I'm growing impatient with your perpetual inaccuracy.

Inductive reasoning requires assumptions. Therefore all my claims that you have been making assumptions is therefor not a straw man, but based on the fact that inductive reasoning requires assumptions.

Assumptions based on hard facts. That's the only time I used inductive reasoning. I described those facts quite clearly. Although it seems your apparent dyslexia prevents you from understanding most of what I write.

What? Magnetic fields exist -> The brain produces electromagnetic fields -> Therefore telekinesis is the brain manipulating electromagnetic fields in a way to make obejcts move.

It seems you can't grasp how much speculation I put into the magnetic fields bit. I only mentioned it once. The rest of my descriptions were shifted to more of an explanation without knowledge of what would cause it. One can't speculate the substance without first speculating the existence. It would be best that you drop it.

Sorry, they do.

 

Have you ever trained a Dog to stay and not eat a snack? For the Dog to resist the urge to eat the snack (which they want to do or they wouldn't eat the snack when you tell then it is ok to do so), they must exert self control of the type you are claiming that they can't.

I find it absurd that you are correlating basic primal control to such an advanced concept as telekinetics. My post clarified what I meant by that phrase. Animals do not have anywhere near the level of cognitive control we possess.

Training a dog is more of a subconscious control mechanism we instill in them through repetition. Even lab rats can learn similar tricks. As can almost any animal. This, however, does not suggest cognitive thinking in the least. Perhaps you should read up on the philosophy of cognitive thought if you want to get what I'm trying to convey.

If you could get them to understand the concept of slowing their heart, then yes, they could do that. Dogs (and other animals) can be trained to control other autonomous function (salivating, for example - look to Pavlov's experiments to see where this started).

Do you even know what cognitive means? Pavlov's experiments were the result of training the dogs primal brain to know what meant "food". There's nothing cognitive about it. The dogs did not cognitively control their salivating. Their brains were trained to turn it "on" in preparation for food.

We can train ourselves. The dogs cannot.

Physiologically there is nothing "New" in our brains that is not present in nearly all other vertebrates. So, are you claiming that we have something extra to our brains, or that it is just that we have more of it?

Excuse me. What? "Nearly all other vertebrates"? The human brain is only similar to its biological family. Brain composition can be similar, but its workings are very different from that of many other families.

Sufficed to say, homo sapiens do not need anything "novel" or "new" if it's as I described. But it should be obvious that our brains work very differently than other members of the primate family due to its volume and such. I'm not entirely clear on it, as I'm not a neurologist. It does open up a window for further study, though.

If it is only a case of "more of it", then there is no reason that the necesary wireing could not have appeared within another species as not all out frontal lobe would be used for telekinetic (or other) powers (or we wouldn't have the self control that we have).

Indeed. So why hasn't the necessary wiring appeared in other members of the primate family to construct spears, build fires, create agriculture communities, mathematics, and millions of other achievements of humans?

It is not only a neurological thing that would allow for telekinetics. In theory it should take years of meditation (varying depending on the individual) to control it at our current stage in evolution. It's nothing we have immediately available, and because of this it's something that requires more conscious effort than other species would be capable of. Which generally only appears in species with highly developed brains (such as ours).

The volume (not SIZE) of the neocortex and the frontal lobe is what allows us conscious control over our autonomous functions. We, I believe, have the largest volume versus other animals.

Science doesn't answer the "why" part. Philosophy does.

Which is the point of my "evolution disproves psychic powers" argument. If it could have existed in another animal, why, given it's obviously major advantage to survival, is it not commonly seen in animals?

I had explained earlier in my posts. I refuse to repeat myself.

If it is possible that a mutation could allow any animal to develop these kinds of powers, then evolution would favour the spread of these and further development and refinement of them.

I mentioned the possibility in good faith. As a possibility. According to my hypothetical explanation, it makes no sense for it to be a genetic mutation. If it was, everyone would have it. Which furthers the point that it isn't a mutation.

So from this we can conclude that there is no modification of existing brain physiology that would allow such powers to exist and as humans, besides having larger brains are physiologically identical to a fish's brain, we can therefore conclude that if psychic powers are existent in other vertebrates, then it is not likely (read virtually impossible) that such powers exist for us.

They have similar compositions (neurons and other cells), but how they are "organized" and evolved are VASTLY different. Also, only mammals tend to have a neocortex. The fact you keep getting things wrong proves your lack of study.

Factual error 102: The ancestoral species that Humans decened from did not pop into existance 65,000,000 years ago. That ancestor was decened from a species that existed before 65,000,000 years ago, and can trace it's ancestory back to the first life on Earth. Therefore we are the result of around 4,000,000,000 years of evolution, just like I said.

VERY loosely, which means it's impossible to correlate anything recent to evolution prior to around 80,000,000 years. Your originally intended point is moot. In fact the only correlation that can be made evolution wise rests with the family of primates. Anything prior to that lacks enough similarities to be considered related to us in any manner but "extremely loose".

So if you still have a point, I'm curious as to know what it could be.

Technology does not equal intelligence.

I meant that as a loose correlation. Immediately, no, it does not. Although I don't see an Ape community using spears against its enemies. Or even basic stone tools to make life easier. Technology is generally evidence of our intelligence capacity. Environmentally caused or not.

Only if you assume that telekinetics exist in the first place. Remember the discussion is not about how one would go about using these powers, but whether the powers actually exist.

And included in that explanation is what is required. Since you seemed convinced that we can "do it right away". At this stage in our evolution, we can't. That's why I explained what it would require. To give you a mental image of how "weak" such an ability would be.

Hunting and gathering actually take up less time than farming. The advantage of farming is that you have a constant supply and can produce more than you need.

I advise you read on the advent of agriculture. Prior to agriculture we were forced to spend all our time foraging and hunting because we never had a surplus. And if we did it would be minimal. Surviving only on hunted animals and foraged goods allows very little personal time.

Meanwhile, with agriculture, we had many months of free time before and after harvests. Crops did not require constant attention, and throughout history we have invented more and more things that allow us free time. It also allowed us to stop being nomads due to limitations in food supplies, which furthered our civilization achievements.

Training is just changeing the way your brain is wired. So, back to my "evolution disprove it", if it is down to "training" or the wireing of the brain, then there is no barrier for an animal having a mutation that wires their brain up the right way to achieve these powers. If this is so, then again: Why don't we see animals with these powers? And, why do you keep insisting that only Humans are capable of manifesting these powers?

Why don't we see animals with an innate ability for mathematics? Since math training is just changing the way your brain is wired, we should see it in all other animals because it's an evolutionary advantage.

I don't insist that only humans are capable. I insist that intelligence is a major factor in it. Something you seem to not wish to believe. I suppose a 5 year old should be doing advanced physics calculations?

No, it is being thorough. If the material used to block cheating might cause the blocking of the psychic powers, then this must be taken into account.

You need to confirm they exist before you can figure out which materials block it. Hence why it's unscientific. If conducted properly, a test where no materials blocking it could still rule out trickery.

If you disagree it's similar to saying "we should have figured out which materials blocked nuclear radiation before we knew it existed".

Are you claiming that matter knows that it is in a scientific laboritory and decides to "play up" and not behave the same way as in the outside world?

Obviously not. I'm saying that a human will interact with matter differently than most tests done in a lab. Especially if there's some type of matter a human can influence.

There are many many substances that influence others, of course. Such as magnets.

No statistical analysis will reveal whether or not you have "false" positives.

Were you paying attention, you'd know that the test doesn't depend on statistics analysis but visual. If you can get a pinwheel to move as I described, you do not need sensitive equipment. Just a good speed and the ability to change its direction at will. To explain it simply.

Anything less wouldn't be significant enough for study. Since it could be an external source rather than telekinetics. Using advanced equipment for anything prior to that is absolutely needless.

Congratulations iNow. You've supported someone who thinks objective observers are by definition not objective.

You've only been eligible for posting in Politics for the last 17 posts (takes a minimum of 30 posts to be eligible). If you'll give it a chance you'll see that it's well moderated and, while more opinion-prone than the science sub-fora, Politics at SFN is discussed rationally and logically. Fallacious logic is frowned on as elsewhere and lunatics are dealt with pretty harshly. And the focus is often how politics will affect scientific inquiry.

I don't post in politics. I don't need to. Instead I watch. The quality of discussion for "recent events" in which people have beliefs is normally very low, especially compared to more scientific discussions.

I feel that, rather than discussing events singularly, it's better to discuss the whole form of government. America's democracy has its flaws, after all. Such flaws are the driving problem behind most criticism of various politicians or legislations. It makes more sense, therefore, to restrict conversation to the fuller scale. It helps people learn more about the big picture.

So far all I've observed in the politics forum is useless discussions of recent events such as the iraq war, upcomming election, word-salad posts, posts without useful content, etc. I've seen barely any useful discussion come from that thread. Even going back quite a ways, the ratio of good quality posts to bad is very low.

So were supposed to ignore current events and just discuss *types* of governments and economies? Pass.

I think it's a little more than just that. One could discuss the interaction of governments with its populace, the interaction between two governments, etc. It's not such a limited spectrum. It only carves out meaningless posts.

I think we'd spend more time telling people they have to stop talking about current events than it would be worth. Politics is one of our most-viewed sections. And we try to encourage members to post in all the sub-fora; you'll get a verbal warning if you spend *all* your time in Politics.

Thus the problem. Politics is a science forums most viewed forum. If you do not see what is wrong with that picture, I'm not sure how I can make you.

P.S: I've had access to politics for quite a long time. In fact my recent posts are only a fraction of my initial ones. I had over 30 before I stopped posting before, after all.

I'll make it simple. The politics forum. Politics, while it could be discussed in terms of rationality, is just too open to lunatics and people generally uninterested in any science.

It would be better replaced with something like "Government & Economy" where discussions will focus on various types of government and economic discussions.

Nevermind. I misunderstood the post. Stupid me. Ignore me. Jesus.

There's a problem with your whole "reorganization of Jung archetypes". It doesn't explain human behaviors so much as it "recategorizes" them in a confusing and unnecessary manner. It's more like a superficial categorization of personality types that only exists for mild amusement with no real applicability. There seems to be no point to them whatsoever.

In fact what it does do is end up limiting views into archetypes rather than a broad view of diagnosis. I'll use the archetypes provided as an example:

1. The Child - lacks restraint

The archetypes are also misleading by name. "The Child" for example, brings up thoughts of curiosity, energy, creativity, ignorance, etc. Not "lacks restraint".

While it's all well and good if you want to lump charactaristics into something like "The child" (as I provided in those thoughts), it's important to realize that various disorders have deeper sides to them. Such as a person having an outward appearance of some archetypes, but an inward disagreement with said outward archetype.

So someone may be like "the child" in that they lack mental/physical restraint. But there could be environmental factors causing them to do so. Ergo, inwardly they'd love nothing more than to be a mix of "the child" and "The wise old man" (and internally they are).

Which brings up another problem with archetypes. Cross-"pollenization" of the various types to create unique types. In the end, it's much more efficient to skip adhering to archetypes and go straight to analysis of the personality. Which means archetypes have no practical application.

I'm not exactly sure what you went on to do. You completely lost focus while writing and went off on a non-sequitur tangent only to bring it back with some further examples at the bottom of the page that furthers my confusion.

No, but it'd still be a post hoc ergo propter hoc fallacy. As solar radiation is the actual radiative forcing impacting the climate system, that's what you should be graphing.

Incorrect. I'm not implying that A occurred then B occurred, therefore A caused B. Since it's a fact that sunspots are directly correlated to temperature. And that solar radiation is just one of the many things sunspots cause.

If you have the audacity to claim I make that fallacy, then why does that fallacy not apply to CO2 and warming trends? "CO2 increased, then temperature increased, therefore CO2 caused the temperature increase" (Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc Fallacy)

One need merely look at sunspot activity during the little ice age or the medieval warm period. Since the graphs show such a strong correlation between sunspots and temperature, it doesn't matter exactly what about the sun is causing it. Since sunspots seem to be an accurate gauge of it.

Although it is a good idea, nonetheless, to try and graph all the sun activities. Perhaps I'll make a few other graphs dealing with solar radiation and temperature.

I'm skeptical. Using electricity like that might cause some damage to our neurons and other parts of our brain.

Alas I'm a bit busy right now, but this jumped out at me...

 

The burden of proof is on you not us. This is alas how science works

As I explained, I provided inductive reasoning based on various sciences and scientific evidence. Thus, I have "suffered" the burden of proof. If you disagree with my definitions, then you must take on the burden of proof and prove them incorrect.

If I had claimed to be able to do telekinetics, the burden of proof would be on me to prove I can. Instead, I hypothesized that telekinetics is possible. The burden of proof is on me to prove how it could be.

To quote your OP:

My above calculations [...] prove that' date=' up until around 1985-94, temperature averages followed sunspot spikes.

[/quote']

 

Logical Fallacy 101: Misquoting. I conceded that I had made a statistical error after I was corrected. Quoting a post after I conceded it was incorrect is somewhat in bad taste.

 

Also, what I did was not imply something before the statistics. What I did was say what the statistics implied. They did do that, which is also why they were incorrect.

 

This is not the case. Furthermore, understanding the effect of sunspots on solar irradiance requires, at the very least, an understanding of how solar irradiance is measured.

 

Solar irradiance is very closely tied with Sunspot activity. This is a proven fact.

 

Since all I am now doing is attempting to make two graphs that show sunspot activity and earth temperature in better detail, I don't need a degree in solar physics.

 

You've seemed to skip directly from the sunspot cycle to an assumed impact upon solar irradiance and thus global climate change without understanding solar irradiance. SkepticLance has done the same. Implying the former has an effect on global climate change without understanding the latter is nothing but a post hoc ergo propter hoc fallacy. The former is irrelevant, except as an explanation for the latter. The latter is what actually has an impact on Earth's climate system.

 

Which is why it's a good idea to use the former to gauge the effects on earths climate system. Since the latter is still a very complex issue that is difficult to measure.

 

I knew there was a loose correlation between sunspots and earths climate anyway. Not a direct one. Which is why, as I explained, sometimes the climate does the opposite of what the sunspots do (pre-industrial).

 

I suggest you follow swansont's advice. For starters, if you're contradicting established science, you might first start by pointing out flaws therein, rather than starting by stating your own hypothesis then failing to substantiate it.

 

Logical Fallacy: Straw man. I did not set out to contradict established science. My initial post probably did, but it was from a flaw I corrected immediately. Currently what I'm doing is simply making a graph that allows for better detail than ones in circulation. I wish to do this myself for the experience.

 

Which is why, finally, the thread can live up to its name of objectivity.

You have assumed that as our intelligence is evolving, this is proof that psychic powers are also evolving. Yes, intelegence is evolving in humans, but just because we are intelligent does not necesarily mean that we have psychic powers. We could be intelligent without psychic powers.

 

Therefore Intelligence does not equal psychic potential.

Welcome to logical fallacies 101: Straw man. I did not say that our intelligence evolving is proof of psychic abilities. I did explain that evolution of intelligence could allow us some abilities we falsely consider metaphysical or "psychic".

You're completely redefining what "psychic" is. Also, "psychic power" in no way relates to what the description of those two abilities are. The word psychic is defined as:

1. A person apparently responsive to psychic forces.

2. See medium (sense 6).

 

adj. also psy·chi·cal (-kĭ-kəl)

 

1. Of, relating to, affecting, or influenced by the human mind or psyche; mental: psychic trauma; psychic energy.

2.

1. Capable of extraordinary mental processes, such as extrasensory perception and mental telepathy.

2. Of or relating to such mental processes.

In a sense you are correct. Intelligence doesn't equal psychic potential. It does tend to equal better awareness/control though. Even so, you based it on a fallacious premise (that of a straw man).

What proof do you have of this? This is just an assumption by you on your preconceived expectations of what you believe psychic powers are.

There is proof that those two abilities are not what I hypothesized them to be? Where is it?

You keep referring to them as "psychic". Can you prove this?

My evidence was already presented through the use of inductive reasoning. I used the premise of various bodies of science and research to support a conclusion but not confirm it. From here, you can falsify it by experimenting or learning of some factual flaw. Like how dreams might not be what I described.

The ability to "control" ones actions is not only in Humans, Dogs can do this, most the great apes have this ability, and maybe some birds and cetations too and suprisingly some Crocodiles have shown a remarkable level of intelegence to the point where they can be taught tricks like a dog.

Fallacy: Apples to Oranges. Animals do not have the ability to cognitively control their actions. An example would again be the slowing of the heart by cognitive effort.

Many of the mental abilities that we ascribe as being essential to being Human have been show to occur in animals.

To a very lesser degree. Humans have a higher evolved frontal lobe and cerebral cortex, after all. The frontal lobe being important because it's involved in self control.

The closest in size would be our relatives, but function and composition are very different. Also important is that humans have the largest frontal cortex volume .

So if, as you claim, it is only Humans that have the potential to express psychic powres, then you will have to explain why other animals will find it impossible. As all other mental abilities occur in other animals, then, if psychic powers are a product of the brain, why can't they occur in other animals?

Logical Fallacy 101: Straw Man. I did not claim that only humans have the potential for visions and telekinetics as I described/defined them. Only a sentient species with sufficient control over themselves would be sufficed.

Then again, the opposite could be true. Maybe there is some odd mutation that can cause it while at the same time leaving the species primal. I don't know. And neither do you.

You're basing this conclusion on a number of false and illogical premises. Thus the problem with your conclusion.

No, Humans have been evolving for 4 billion years or so. Admittedly we weren't Homo Sapiens for most of that, but for the last 1,000,000 we have been "almost" Human.

Factual errors 101: The closest we can say humans began evolving to their current state is from the last mass extinction 65,000,000 years ago. Then again, scientists think that the earliest human ancestor appeared 85,000,000 years ago.

The first stone tools are found 2,000,000 years ago "developed" by H. habilis. Homo Habilis is argued to be the first species of "Homo" to appear. They existed from 2.4-1.6 million years ago.

Which means the first appearance of human-like ancestors is 2.4 million years ago. It has taken us 2.4 million years to go from stone tools to our current level of technology. Most of which happened in the last 10,000 years.

This means we have hardly had enough time to evolve our intelligence to very high levels. Keep in mind that the AVERAGE person is still pretty stupid compared to the rest of us. Most of our advancements were from a select few brilliant people.

There's also a psychological element to consider. The more intelligent people generally have a better ability of self control. Excluding religiously influenced parties (Buddhist monks for example). Why? Better use of our intelligence. We're more aware of consequences and connections. Going from there I can induce that intelligence, through making us more aware, can allow us better self control.

The rest is hard practice. It can take years of meditation to control some autonomous functions. Since it takes a lot of time to train neural pathways that control heartbeats, breathing, and a lot of other factors. From an example of the work involved with controlling autonomous functions, I can then induce that even minor things like dream "visions" or minor telekinetics requires a lot of intelligence (first to discover a working method), then a lot of practice and training.

Admittedly that's a best case scenario, but again it's speculative reasoning based on various assumptions, factual premises, and so on.

[...] There is a lot of evidence that many of the species we have decended from have had some remarkable mental abilities (like the ability to control their actions as we do - what you claim is a necesity for psychic powers to develop). So I would estimate that there has been around 5,000,000 years for such powers to develop in an environment: an "intelligent" creature capable of being able to .

Logical Fallacy: Factual error. Our prior conditions would not allow for our intelligence to evolve as it has in the past 10,000 years because we were too busy dying before age 40. Prehistoric conditions were far too savage for any of what I've described. We never really had time to sit and think when we were busy hunting and gathering every hour we were awake.

So no we are not "at the beginning". We have had millions of years of opertunity to evolve any rudimentary abilities. There was no physiological leap when we developed civilisation, it was just a series of social structures and apropreate environmental conditions being in the same place and time.

Factual errors 101: As I have explained, our ability to make even basic tools has been very recent. I assume that our neural cortex volume has spent the past two million years increasing quite rapidly. As a result we inevitably became intelligent enough to make way for agriculture.

I do know that we have had "about" this level of intelligence for a long time. Yet as I explained, it also requires a stable environment to achieve better awareness/control. We are in the beginning in that we can barely achieve this with years of training.

Well you could try differnet materials (as it might be a variable in the outcome).

Which should only be done AFTER an experiment proves successful. Doing so beforehand is a bit...unscientific.

Measuring devices now days can be extremely sensitive. We can measure displacemnts of less than an atomic width, we can weigh molecules, we can detect changes in timing down to a very small fraction of a second, and yet, in none of these has any significant effect been detected that we didn't know about (or couldn't be attributed to something we know about).

Where's Dark Matter?

One of the problems with this line of reasoning is assuming enough tests have been done. I can assure you they haven't in regards to these abilities, as I've did quite a bit of study regarding what has been done. Normally it's limited to measuring brain activity or magnetic fields.

Something to consider is the human effect on some types of matter. Some things might not, "naturally", cause such an effect. Then when affected by other substances it isn't in lab situations, it will react differently.

Forget a pinwheel. How about using something much more sensitive?

If you have the equipment: Go for it. The problem is said equipment is also TOO sensitive. It will read a "positive" when it's not you generating movement. I advise a pinwheel because it's a practical observation solution that doesn't require scientific equipment.

What would require scientific equipment is when one would go "public" with their findings or somesuch. I advised it as a simple private solution.

Yes, I actually got into a conversation with someone that did exactly that. They claimed that because someone could completely rule out that it might have been psychic power, then that was absolute proof that psychic powers existed.

 

Why am I saying this? Well you seem to be headding down that path.

Logical fallacy: Ad Hominem. For your conversation partner: Negative Proof Fallacy.

Cute. The entire point of this IS to learn. I am also well versed in what is said about global warming, which is why I found it highly insulting for someone to give me a link on it.

The reason I've not posted the graphs yet, is because I've ended up needing to create custom graphs in excel (also because I just started using excel two days ago). Kind of annoying, really.

And yet you've not pointed out a flaw? The closest anyone came was throwing evolution at it.

I mentioned it as a possibility. Do you know what "hypothesis" means? Or "speculation"?

I've seen a few of the type of "tests" they do. It's as though they're purposefully doing it wrong. For telekinetics at least. I make no explanation for telepathy or other abilities. The entire point of my explanation was to explain the possible development of both visions and telekinetics.

NONE of my explanations give any excuses for people claiming to be able to "see the future" or such nonsense you see commercialized. I attempt to explain the possible emergence of very LIMITED abilities that are well within reality.

I also give no excuse to the large number of "psion communities" and other pseudoscientific 13-year-olds. They're still idiots, and they're still wrong.

I thought of a plausible method to experiment with some small telekinetics ability. Explained below:

If you wish to experiment, you could go down a lengthy road of attempting to move a light paper "pinwheel" (commonly seen on many "psion" websites and communities). The only way to prove it's you doing it, is to move it both ways on command rapidly. Using some sort of obstruction to exclude external sources isn't scientific, because the substance responsible for "telekinetics" could be blocked by it.

To compensate for the lack of ability to exclude external sources that way, the only plausible method is to attempt to become "adept". Spin the pinwheel left or right or command, and do it continuously "with your mind".

IF the pinwheel only moves in one direction, or if it moves very slowly without any conscious control on your part, chances are it's not you moving it. It excludes all external sources until you'd be moving it rapidly on command (and no external source could do that. Not one that you wouldn't feel, anyway).

The reason most other attempts do it "wrong" is because they normally use some sort of obstruction to exclude external causes, such as glass dome. This ends up making a stupid situation where people think they're moving it by placing their hand on the glass (creating heat, which can move the pinwheel just a little).

Other external sources are excluded in my method, because the smaller ones (such as changes in heat) that cause light movement are ignored. While heavier ones can be noticed by you (a gust of wind, for example). All the while making sure whatever causes the movement "telepathically" isn't blocked.

If this isn't scientific, I'd like an explanation as to why not.

P.S: Since I hypothesize that this is caused by the conscious mind controlling an autonomous function that normally isn't used, I believe it requires a lot of focus. Learning practices such as meditation can help, because through that focus allows better control over such functions (this is how people can slow their hearts to a near stop).

This "experiment" isn't suggested for those that want immediate evidence due to the sheer time which it can probably take. Hell, I haven't really bothered experimenting. I just devised a method that should allow for objective experiments.

In New Zealand there is a Lizard (the Tuatara IIRC) with a vetigial 3rd eye. It is little more than a light sensitive patch of skin covered by scales. However, this does not give it any psychic powers.

I hope you're joking. The "third eye" is a very ancient metaphorical chakra. Not a literal thing.

Actually evolution would be an argument against any psychic powers existing.

 

[...]

 

How fast would a mutation that allowed them to manipulate small objetcs (virus particles?) spread through the population. Or what about being able to predict where predators are going to be (being able to predict the future). Or be able to send "messages" through pure thought (could be used to warn of a nearby predator without revealing sender's location to the predator).

 

The fact that we haven't been able to find any overt (as in a widespread ability) evidence of any psychic power in an organism (including humans), in light of how evolution works, seems to indicate that psychic powers don't exist.

In fact that is a good argument proving that evolution IS the driving cause of it. It's why we're evolving towards furthering our intelligence, which will as a result further our abilities, which will further our survival abilities.

You are apparently mistakenly looking at it like a separate entity. When in fact it is directly tied to our conscious minds ability to control its automatic functions. Which means it is in fact evolving as we are. We're just "at the beginning". Your inane request that it should have happened faster is like asking "why didn't we evolve the ability to consciously attack problems we know we have?". Oh we might get there one day. Just not anytime soon.

Remember that we only started to begin civilizations ten thousand years ago, we're still very young as far as cognitive evolution is concerned. It takes millions of years. It might be faster if it WERE a mutation, but as well all know mutations involving the brain aren't so nice-nice. We're evolving it the old fashioned way.

Also, comparing it to rabbits and immunities is a bit...um...wrong? Your brain and your immune system are two very different things. Your immune system is evolved to adapt quickly, while your brain is...much more complex.

Many people seem to argue against the possibility of telekinetics and the like because of hollywood. It seems as though everyone is stuck with the image of people throwing buildings about with their mind, rather than a more realistic version.

Let me paint a more realistic version. In the reality of it (assuming it exists), it's probably some cognitive manipulation of some part of our body. Probably something to do with our magnetic field surrounding our body. This would be most likely due to an "accident" with evolution. Much as it was an accident that we became so intelligent, through that intelligence we've gained cognitive control over a number of autonomous functions (some people can learn to almost stop their heart).

So assuming it's controlling a part of us that allows us to interact with things on a small scale, it's not so much controlling things with only your mind as it is using your mind to control a part of you. In the same way telepathy might work, excluding the other explanations (which would be difficult to do).

That said, assuming the above explanation is true in any form, the MAXIMUM anyone could CURRENTLY control this would be very small objects with very high amounts of concentration.

As for other abilities/beliefs like telepathy/past lives/etc, that's probably the result of average people attempting to explain things they don't understand. Which is typical, as it's how religion was created. Although I do have an explanation for visions, but it deals with the complex nature of dreams.

The most accurate "visions" we have tend to be in our dreams. This is because in our dreams, our brain is allowed free reign to think of anything and everything. Even on levels we, consciously, can not because of various mental blocks, dogmas, or emotions with various things. The visions are not so much accurate predictions of the future, as they are our brain using its full capability to calculate probabilities. In the same sense we can dream out an entire lifetime, we can spend an entire "lifetime" in sleep calculating the most accurate outcome.

And there you have it. That is also why most visions aren't always exact. Since they're only probable calculations of the future based on input we've received out entire lives.

ALL of this, is the result of us being "too intelligent". An accident from evolution. So now you have a hypothetical explanation that brings the paranormal down to a more realistic level, and a mechanism through our intelligence and cognitive "power".

Now that part is true. The Mozilla team seems much more dedicated than Microsoft's.

However, if you were a blackhat which would you rather do? Attempt to exploit a browser around 15% of the internet population use, or infect a browser most of the world uses?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_through_obscurity

In case anyone wants to know the cryptography definition. I think that's proof enough that, yes, it DOES enter into the security question.

Last I heard Mozilla's global market share was like 15%. Need I say more?

Was there a point to all of that work you just did?

Bascule: No. My main attempt was to imply nothing. Hence why my original post has a note that it proves nothing. As I've explained, this was supposed to be a learning exercise. I posted this on a forum for that purpose. To receive corrections and get a better understanding of what I was doing.

Instead I find my topic hijacked while at the same time I'm attacked for supposedly making errors that I did not. Frustrating, to say the least. Also straying from the topic further. Argh.

I'd argue, only you sound like a linux tree-hugger. (joking)

Also, using locational statistics is ridiculous. Anyone aiming for a mass-effect wants a GLOBAL mass effect. Unless you want to prove that specific countries are targeted, the point of using those statistics is mute. Or is that moot? Damn it.

Here's the thing. I'M NOT DISCUSSING THE PHYSICS OF IT.

Is that clear enough for you all? It's like there's a gigantic strawman conspiracy. Either that or I'm just not making enough sense here. It's probably the latter, but for christ SAKES people.

I'll put it simply. Firefox does everything IE7 does (and more), only better. Which is obvious considering Firefox has had a hell of a lot more time to do it. An example would be Tabs.

P.S: One major factor to consider is the "Linux effect". Linux is barely used by anyone, so nobody writes viruses/spyware/etc for that OS. Firefox, market wise, is barely used by anyone. So barely anyone attempts to find exploits.

Security through obscurity! Also why IE7 will fail.