Der_Neugierige Posted November 10, 2015 Share Posted November 10, 2015 (edited) Why do some lesbians look like men without beard and some gay men do look like women? What's the biological reason? It seems for me that there is something biochemical and genetically going on. Edited November 10, 2015 by Der_Neugierige Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pwagen Posted November 10, 2015 Share Posted November 10, 2015 For the same reason some straight women look like men and some straight men look like women. Also for the same reason some straight men look like men and some lesbian women look like women. People are different due to genes, environment and whatnot, and I'd be curious as to how you'll explain singling out the groups that you did. 2 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Elite Engineer Posted November 10, 2015 Share Posted November 10, 2015 I'd be curious as to how you'll explain singling out the groups that you did. I think the OP was asking a genuine question. How else was he supposed to phrase it? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
studiot Posted November 10, 2015 Share Posted November 10, 2015 and I'd be curious as to how you'll explain singling out the groups that you did. I'd be more interested in how he explains his handle. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Der_Neugierige Posted November 10, 2015 Author Share Posted November 10, 2015 This is serious question. The whole entire story gets worse when you take some subtypes of transsexuals. I know someone who is female to male transsexual. Once this person showed me a photo when he was 2 years old. On this photo he looks like a boy who wears girly cloths and long hair. I think sexuality has something to do with "biochemical modification" that happens peri and prenatally. I observed that there are much more gays than lesbians. For the same reason some straight women look like men and some straight men look like women. Also for the same reason some straight men look like men and some lesbian women look like women. People are different due to genes, environment and whatnot, and I'd be curious as to how you'll explain singling out the groups that you did. So tell me about ONE famous straight woman who looks like a man. You can't, because straight woman indeed can look androgyn or unfeminine, but they still look like women! There is a unexplored biological difference when you take sexuality. I call biochemical modification. Do you want an exemple:Samantha Ronson -3 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CharonY Posted November 11, 2015 Share Posted November 11, 2015 straight woman indeed can look androgyn or unfeminine, but they still look like women! Here you are contradicting yourself. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pwagen Posted November 11, 2015 Share Posted November 11, 2015 because straight woman indeed can look androgyn or unfeminine, but they still look like women! What's your definition of "looking like a woman"? Also, how do you explain lesbian women who indeed " look like women"? 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MonDie Posted November 13, 2015 Share Posted November 13, 2015 Reminds me of this thread. http://www.scienceforums.net/topic/89022-fun-with-how-old-do-i-look/ my comment: I entered "Jessica Tim", and it passed despite the gender ambiguity. Then I entered "Brian Hugh Warner" (Marylin Manson), and it mostly said female. Perhaps it relies on cultural cues rather than biological markers. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Acme Posted November 13, 2015 Share Posted November 13, 2015 This is serious question. ... So tell me about ONE famous straight woman who looks like a man. You can't, because straight woman indeed can look androgyn or unfeminine, but they still look like women! There is a unexplored biological difference when you take sexuality. I call biochemical modification. ... Ok curious. First, what matter does it make if a person is famous or not? Should be obvious my question is rhetorical and it makes no difference. Then, the biological differences are not unexplored, rather the differences are not yet understood. Biology and sexual orientation The relationship between biology and sexual orientation is a subject of research. A simple and singular determinant for sexual orientation has not been conclusively demonstrated; various studies point to different, even conflicting positions, but scientists hypothesize that a combination of genetic, hormonal, and social factors determine sexual orientation.[1][2] Biological theories for explaining the causes of sexual orientation are more popular,[1] and biological factors may involve a complex interplay of genetic factors and the early uterine environment.[3] These factors, which may be related to the development of a heterosexual, homosexual, bisexual or asexual orientation, include genes, prenatal hormones, and brain structure. ... Moreover, before there's a bunch of whining about me citing Wikipedia note that the article I linked to references over 100 sources on the subject, all of which trump some forum poster's un-evidenced 'I think blah blah blah looks like yada yada' that smacks of pseudoscientific phrenology and its ilk. Sexuality is as sexuality does. Get over it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Der_Neugierige Posted November 13, 2015 Author Share Posted November 13, 2015 (edited) I think sexual orientation has its origine in the hypothalamus. And no they haven't done so much research yet. 23andme gwas of sexual orientations shows clearly that gay men are clearly less interested in sport than straight men. Gay men tedencially cry more than straight guys. There is something about the hypothalamus. They should do real studies. I wasn't surprised when sexual orientation is generated in only 1 or 2 cell nuclei networks. Look the brain is like a biochemical computer. Sexual orientation is an instinct. There has to be neuron networks which do generated sexual orientation. If you compare two brain of identical twins, one straight and the other one gay, you could see in the gay twin this tiny cellnetwork to be unmasculinized. I have my doubts that for sexual orientation big parts of the brain are used. Its rather contrary, compacted to small neuronnetworks. Edited November 13, 2015 by Der_Neugierige -2 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MonDie Posted November 14, 2015 Share Posted November 14, 2015 (edited) 23andme gwas of sexual orientations shows clearly that gay men are clearly less interested in sport than straight men. Gay men tedencially cry more than straight guys. And black people have lower incomes. You need to start providing or quoting your sources. *kisses* Edited November 14, 2015 by MonDie Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MonDie Posted November 15, 2015 Share Posted November 15, 2015 Sexuality is as sexuality does. Get over it. He thinks we're mocking him! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Xalatan Posted January 16, 2016 Share Posted January 16, 2016 As far as I am aware people who undergo sex change may take hormone replacement to modify their biochemical makeup. Oestrogen and progesterone supplement will make a male become more feminine, while androgen supplement will make a female more hirsute and masculine. Gonadal hormones are the biochemical basis for gender and secondary sexual characteristics so it may be possible for people to manipulate this. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tantalus Posted January 16, 2016 Share Posted January 16, 2016 (edited) Why do some lesbians look like men without beard and some gay men do look like women? What's the biological reason? It seems for me that there is something biochemical and genetically going on. I think the pattern may be exaggerated by observational bias. It's worth pointing out that any differences have no moral basis either, as people may get upset by implying differences. It's worth noting that heterosexual men and women vary in how feminine or masculine they are, there is a spectrum. Is there an increased chance of a lesbian women being more masculine than a heterosexual women, I would like to see research showing such a pattern but it is a suggestive idea. Prenatal hormone exposure has long been suggested as biological trigger for homosexuality, but it definitely is an explanation for why all people vary in how feminine or masculine they are. If there is a correlation like you suggested, I think you could expect to find some statistical difference in how gay people's hormonal development, timing and exposure in their prenatal development occurs, from that of heterosexuals. Either way, feminine and masculine features are the result of the secretion of hormones during development, which is coded by genes. You shouldnt rule out random environmental effects altering the pathway, or the exact types of variation in the process that produces variation also observed in heterosexuals unless substantial variation is found between people of different sexual orientation. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Defeminization_and_masculinization Edited January 16, 2016 by tantalus Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Der_Neugierige Posted January 25, 2016 Author Share Posted January 25, 2016 I think the pattern may be exaggerated by observational bias. It's worth pointing out that any differences have no moral basis either, as people may get upset by implying differences. It's worth noting that heterosexual men and women vary in how feminine or masculine they are, there is a spectrum. Is there an increased chance of a lesbian women being more masculine than a heterosexual women, I would like to see research showing such a pattern but it is a suggestive idea. Prenatal hormone exposure has long been suggested as biological trigger for homosexuality, but it definitely is an explanation for why all people vary in how feminine or masculine they are. If there is a correlation like you suggested, I think you could expect to find some statistical difference in how gay people's hormonal development, timing and exposure in their prenatal development occurs, from that of heterosexuals. Either way, feminine and masculine features are the result of the secretion of hormones during development, which is coded by genes. You shouldnt rule out random environmental effects altering the pathway, or the exact types of variation in the process that produces variation also observed in heterosexuals unless substantial variation is found between people of different sexual orientation. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Defeminization_and_masculinization If the whole story is determinded by prenatal hormon exposure, does this mean that an exact set of genes are in gay mem epigeneticaly different programized compared to straight men. If sexual orientation is an inborn instinct and gynephilia is the result of prenatal testosteron exposure and androphilia the lack of testosteron, so we can say in the brains of all gay men(doesn't matter how masculine they act or look) there is something not masculinized. In other words genes which are upregulated by testosterone weren't compared to straight men. So we can say in Jodie Foster's brain there is something masculinized cause of high prenatal neuroendocrine exposure or/and epigenetic reasons genes (those exact set of genes) were to strong expressed!? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tantalus Posted January 25, 2016 Share Posted January 25, 2016 If the whole story is determinded by prenatal hormon exposure, does this mean that an exact set of genes are in gay mem epigeneticaly different programized compared to straight men. If sexual orientation is an inborn instinct and gynephilia is the result of prenatal testosteron exposure and androphilia the lack of testosteron, so we can say in the brains of all gay men(doesn't matter how masculine they act or look) there is something not masculinized. In other words genes which are upregulated by testosterone weren't compared to straight men. So we can say in Jodie Foster's brain there is something masculinized cause of high prenatal neuroendocrine exposure or/and epigenetic reasons genes (those exact set of genes) were to strong expressed!? I think prenatal hormone exposure is the most important factor in explaining variation of masculinity, femininity in the personalities of people of all sexual orientation. This factor has both underlying causes based on genetic variation and non-genetic factors, although I would guess genetic causes being the most significant. Extending this to explaining variation in sexual orientation is an altogether different matter, but maybe, maybe there is a link... I'm not sure how important epigenetic factors are in regard to homosexuality, but when you look at twin studies on the matter, and the number of twins that do not have the same sexual orientation despite identical DNA, it is very suggestive of something very important going on apart from genetic factors that hold steady to development of sexuality. I am not saying anything specific just to be clear (Jodie foster et al.), just speculating on fruitful areas to direct thoughts on the matter. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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