derek w Posted March 11, 2015 Share Posted March 11, 2015 Is it plausible that the wave function does not exist in 3 dimensional space? That our 3 dimensional is a surface of a 4 dimensional space or a cross section of 4 dimensions. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sensei Posted March 11, 2015 Share Posted March 11, 2015 (edited) Check how "inverse square law" would work in 4 dimensional space + 1 time and let us know what math you got.. Edited March 11, 2015 by Sensei Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
imatfaal Posted March 11, 2015 Share Posted March 11, 2015 Check how "inverse square law" would work in 4 dimensional space + 1 time and let us know what math you got.. Agree - But surely the other way around. Can the OP give some approx law which applies to 4d+1 which would give us (in 3d+1) what manifests as inverse square? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
derek w Posted March 12, 2015 Author Share Posted March 12, 2015 The best analogy between quantum and classical physics is "the pilot-wave dynamics of walking droplets". In this example the droplets and the wave function are separated rather than having duality. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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