Muon321 Posted March 4, 2013 Share Posted March 4, 2013 If a particle at rest has a momentum of 0, it still has a normal frequency, but it has a wavelength of undefined, so how does that work? What's going on with that wave? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted March 4, 2013 Share Posted March 4, 2013 If the particle were truly at rest, its spatial wave function would have an infinite extent, i.e. you could find it anywhere. However, that's not a situation you can achieve. There will always be an uncertainty in the momentum. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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