indignity Posted November 6, 2004 Share Posted November 6, 2004 er... actually... I think I was wrong... to get the inverse of a function... replace x's with y's, and y's with x's, and solve for y the inverse of y = x^2 would be y = (plus or minus) sqrt(x) inverses are reflected over the line y = x Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gene Posted November 10, 2004 Author Share Posted November 10, 2004 Heh. that 's what i do when i find the inverse too.. x replace with y and vice versa. although, i am TOTALLY clueless Sylow Subgroup. too advanced for me to comprehend. is that a university standard maths? i sure don't see that i my txtbk. Btw, Is the inverse of any function equal to one divided by that function? Be'cos i see lots of posts on that but never taught of such theory. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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