lemur Posted June 6, 2011 Share Posted June 6, 2011 What basis is there for claiming that potential energy exists only relative to the arbitrarily chosen frame in which it is measured? Doesn't potential energy, just like kinetic energy, persist until it is converted into another form or dissipated? It may be possible to measure it differently according to what frame of motion/time you're interested in, but ultimately it exists as empirically observable potential insofar as it can be released and measured as such, correct? Just because something runs out of potential in a given frame doesn't make it absolutely devoid of potential energy in any possible frame. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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