triclino Posted April 17, 2010 Share Posted April 17, 2010 Can the following two definitions of sqrt(x) be considered as equivalent?? 1) if [math]x\geq 0[/math] ,then ([math]\sqrt x=y[/math]) if ([math]y^2=x\wedge y\geq 0[/math]) 2) if [math]x\geq 0[/math] ,then ([math]\sqrt x=y[/math]) iff ([math]y^2=x\wedge y\geq 0[/math]) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the tree Posted April 18, 2010 Share Posted April 18, 2010 Since the positive square root function is single valued and monotonic, I would say so. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
triclino Posted April 18, 2010 Author Share Posted April 18, 2010 If they are equivalent we must have: (1) implying (2) and (2) implying (1) . I can see that (2) implies (1) ,but how does (1) imply (2)?? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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