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can't go faster than light.


dstebbins

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According to the laws of Relativity, matter and energy are equivalent and interchangable at the rate of e=mc^2. This means that as an object speeds up, thus increasing its kinetic energy, its mass also increases. If a 1kg object is stationary, it has a mass of exactly 1kg. However, if it is going at a [relative] speed of 2 m/s, then by the rule of e=.5mv^2, it has one joule of energy, and by the rule of e=mc^2, it thus has an extra 1/c^2 of mass. Not enough to worry about, but once you get to a velocity of c, the mass becomes infinite.

 

Wait: Mass becomes infinite?! What's Einstein's mathematical justification for that? Mathematically, infinity occurs when you divide by zero (e.g. a vertical line has an infinite slope because it's x rise over zero run, or at least so says my Math professor, from freakin' CHINA!); the only reason high school students are taught that you can't divide by zero is because it's more practical to say that for high school purposes, so where do you divide by zero here?

 

I'm not saying Einstein's wrong. Quite the opposite: I'm interested in understanding his point of view. My IQ is only 20 points under his, not to mention I have the same type of autism he had, so I feel I have a good shot and understanding this.

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The mass becomes infinite because the Lorentz transform of mass has a 1-v^2/c^2 in the denominator. So you are dividing by zero.

 

My IQ is only 20 points under his, not to mention I have the same type of autism he had, so I feel I have a good shot and understanding this.

 

What does this have to do with anyhting?

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I'm not saying Einstein's wrong. Quite the opposite: I'm interested in understanding his point of view. My IQ is only 20 points under his, not to mention I have the same type of autism he had, so I feel I have a good shot and understanding this.

 

That's pure speculation, and off topic. But you are free to discuss your speculations in the speculations sub-forum.

 

 

Anyways, to expand on what Bentheman said, the equations for the Lorentz transformation are:

 

t' = y [t - (vx/c^2)]

 

x' = y (x - vt)

 

Y' = Y

 

z' = z

 

And "y" (just the lower case; its actually some greek symbol I forgot the name to) is the Lorentz Factor.

 

y = 1 / [ 1 - (v^2 / c^2)]

 

 

Take note that these equations are describing what is happening in 4 dimensional spacetime, so you need 4 points to describe them.

 

 

<edit> Relativistic mass:

 

m = y m(initial)

 

where, as before, y = 1 / [ 1 - (v^2 / c^2)]^ 1/2

 

When v = c, the denominator is zero, and thats why mass goes to infinity as one approaches the speed of light.

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That's pure speculation, and off topic. But you are free to discuss your speculations in the speculations sub-forum.

 

 

Anyways, to expand on what Bentheman said, the equations for the Lorentz transformation are:

 

t' = y [t - (vx/c^2)]

 

x' = y (x - vt)

 

Y' = Y

 

z' = z

 

And "y" (just the lower case; its actually some greek symbol I forgot the name to) is the Lorentz Factor.

 

y = 1 / [ 1 - (v^2 / c^2)]

 

 

Take note that these equations are describing what is happening in 4 dimensional spacetime, so you need 4 points to describe them.

 

 

<edit> Relativistic mass:

 

m = y m(initial)

 

where, as before, y = 1 / [ 1 - (v^2 / c^2)]^ 1/2

 

When v = c, the denominator is zero, and thats why mass goes to infinity as one approaches the speed of light.

 

 

Why does a photon have no mass then?

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If a 1kg object is stationary, it has a mass of exactly 1kg. However, if it is going at a [relative] speed of 2 m/s, then by the rule of e=.5mv^2, it has one joule of energy

 

Well, 2 Joules actually (.5 * 22)

 

Why does a photon have no mass then?

 

The photon travels at c, and can't have rest mass if it does.

 

The actual equation is E2=p2c2 + m02c4

 

m0 is the rest mass, so we can see that the photon still has momentum

 

It has zero rest mass, but its always moving at the speed of light. Is that right?

 

Yes

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