ash_wolf 10 Posted March 25, 2007 hi...i have a question.... if R is a set of real numbers, and Q is a set of Rational numbers, then R-Q=? 0 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
John Cuthber 3816 Posted March 25, 2007 I'm not sure but I think R-Q = the set of irrational numbers. 0 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
insane_alien 840 Posted March 25, 2007 wouldn't it just give you a different set of real numbers? 0 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
ydoaPs 1601 Posted March 25, 2007 wouldn't it just give you a different set of real numbers? And those real numbers would be the irrational ones. 0 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
timo 577 Posted March 25, 2007 I think some of you misread the original setup. It said R is a set of real numbers and Q is a set of rational numbers. It didn´t say R was THE set of real numbers and Q was THE set of rational numbes. So R\Q (written as R-Q here) can of course contain rational numbers, e.g in the case R = {1,2} , Q = {1} => R\Q = {2}. 0 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
