ash_wolf Posted March 25, 2007 Share Posted March 25, 2007 hi...i have a question.... if R is a set of real numbers, and Q is a set of Rational numbers, then R-Q=? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
John Cuthber Posted March 25, 2007 Share Posted March 25, 2007 I'm not sure but I think R-Q = the set of irrational numbers. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
insane_alien Posted March 25, 2007 Share Posted March 25, 2007 wouldn't it just give you a different set of real numbers? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ydoaPs Posted March 25, 2007 Share Posted March 25, 2007 wouldn't it just give you a different set of real numbers? And those real numbers would be the irrational ones. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
timo Posted March 25, 2007 Share Posted March 25, 2007 I think some of you misread the original setup. It said R is a set of real numbers and Q is a set of rational numbers. It didn´t say R was THE set of real numbers and Q was THE set of rational numbes. So R\Q (written as R-Q here) can of course contain rational numbers, e.g in the case R = {1,2} , Q = {1} => R\Q = {2}. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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