Freeman Posted December 1, 2006 Share Posted December 1, 2006 OK, I have a stupid question, but if one had the equation: [math]\delta (g^{ij}(t+\delta t))/\delta (g^{ij}(t))[/math] wouldn't that be equivalent to [math]\partial_{t} g^{ij}(t)[/math] and thus definitionally [math] -R^{ij} [/math] via the definition of the Ricci flow? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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