Sarahisme Posted October 14, 2006 Share Posted October 14, 2006 Hello peoples, I think this is a trick question... well sort of for part (a) i get that the cosine Fourier Series for f(x) = cos(x) to be: i hope that is ok, but its part (b) that is troubling me... is all that happens as is that the cosine Fourier series of cos(x) goes to 0? i am guessing i am missing some trick to this question? Cheers! Sarah Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sarahisme Posted October 14, 2006 Author Share Posted October 14, 2006 its cool, got it! don't worry guys Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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