biggs Posted May 14, 2006 Share Posted May 14, 2006 so velocity has a limit, the speed of light; and since accerleration is just the differentiation of velocity, does this mean there is a limit to how fast an object can accelerate? ~ and for ms^-3 and ms^-4? and were there a limit, would that mean there is a limit to the integration to distance? a limit to the size of the universe? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
timo Posted May 14, 2006 Share Posted May 14, 2006 so velocity has a limit, the speed of light; and since accerleration is just the differentiation of velocity, does this mean there is a limit to how fast an object can accelerate? I wouldn´t think so. The maximum change in speed a particle can have is 2c (c left to c right). Let´s make in c for simplification (massive particles could reach the 2c only asymtotically which complicates the treatment without giving any new insight - 1c is already sufficient here). Assuming a constant acceleration a which works over a time t, the change in velocity is a*t which shall be < c: a*t < c This equation can be satisfied for any acceleration -no matter how much- if just t is sufficient small, namely t < c/a Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
softdragonz Posted May 14, 2006 Share Posted May 14, 2006 There is no limit to accelerate as long as u have velocity < c But as v -> c, acceleration becomes zero, This is on the basis of the equation, a= v * (sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)) / Delta(T) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
biggs Posted May 14, 2006 Author Share Posted May 14, 2006 what do you guys think of the idea of discreet units of time? could that be possible (as opposed to a continuous continuum of time)? because if there was, i guess there would be a limit to how sufficiently small t is. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
5614 Posted May 15, 2006 Share Posted May 15, 2006 The discrete units of time is already being discussed over here: http://www.scienceforums.net/forums/showthread.php?t=20199 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Prime-Evil Posted May 15, 2006 Share Posted May 15, 2006 I wouldn´t think so. The maximum change in speed a particle can have is 2c (c left to c right). I am not sure of this. I think in this case: c - - c = c Not sure. EDIT: Thinking some more. I am pretty sure I was wrong. Oops. . Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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