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Pronunciation of fungi


NPK

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Not necessarily, as the "modern" use is often derived from the latinized version of the greek words (and is more common, but not exclusive in taxonomic terms). But even then, isn't the Greek plural not also rhinocerotes? I.e. ῥῑνοκέρωτες ? I only learned Latin, so I am really only guessing (though I am fairly sure of keras-> kerata).

 

Yes, the plural of keras is kerata, but just because the etymology of ῥινόκερως is from rhis and keras, it doesn't follow that the plural is formed from the plural of either of these roots. The singular ῥινόκερως is only found 22 times in Ancient Greek sources, and earliest sources give ῥινοκέρωτα as the plural (neuter). But some later sources (e.g. Strabo 16.4.15.9) give οἱ ῥινοκέρωτες (masculine), so there was no conformity. It looks as if we are both right. :)

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  • 4 weeks later...

 

 

You pronounce fungus and fungi the same way? :eek:

On a side note, It's peculiar that when something is infected one says "it has a fungus" instead of " it has fungi" when there are likely to be several or many examples present.

Edited by StringJunky
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On a side note, It's peculiar that when something is infected one says "it has a fungus" instead of " it has fungi" when there are likely to be several or many examples present.

 

 

On the other hand, it could be a single fungus - even if it has infected a whole forest...

 

https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/strange-but-true-largest-organism-is-fungus/

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really imponderable plurals such as rhinoceros (-> rhinocetera).

Don't know if it's still true, but Micro$oft Publisher used to think the plural of rhinoceros was 'rhinoceroses'.

Found that out when one of my students was searching for flower clipart for a Valentines Day card.

Edited by Manticore
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Don't know if it's still true, but Micro$oft Publisher used to think the plural of rhinoceros was 'rhinoceroses'.

Found that out when one of my students was searching for flower clipart for a Valentines Day card.

 

But that's American. :)

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A mushroom walks into a bar and orders drinks for everyone. Someone asks the bartender why he did it, and the bartender responds "because he is a fun guy".

 

And this joke doesn't work, because he has to be a fun guss in the singular.

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  • 1 year later...
On 2/15/2006 at 1:06 AM, NPK said:

Another word that is pronounced inconsistently.

 

Fun-j-eye ?

 

Fun j (eye) in Standard American English.
"G" followed by "I" is a soft sound (The "J" sound) as in , "giraffe:.

("Fun guy," became popularized because of the jokes about a fun guy.)

(Fungus has the hard G because it is followed by the U as the G in the name Gus.)

I am a mycologist...Someone who studies fungi.Fungi is plural and fungus is singular.

(Some people  use a hard G all the time.  I do not recommend that.)

Edited by JazeWay
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16 hours ago, JazeWay said:

Standard American English.

There is no such thing as "American English".

There is English; and there are mistakes.

OTOH, 

  • "There are multiple pronunciations in current English use. More American dictionaries favor the pronunciation /ˈfʌn.dʒaɪ/ or /ˈfʌŋ.ɡaɪ/, while more British dictionaries favor the pronunciation /ˈfʌŋ.ɡiː/ or /ˈfʌn.dʒiː/. However, all four pronunciations are in use in both countries."
    From
    https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/fungi#Pronunciation

:)

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  • 1 month later...

Is it just me or when people type "That's the American pronunciation", you can just hear the sneer? This is the way I look at is, "fun guy" and "fun jeye" are both incorrect. Why, you ask?
Do you say "veneye, veyedeye, veyeceye"? No? Why not? OOOHHHH, because those words are LATIN and that's not how they pronounce the letter "I". In fact, English speaking countries, as far as I know are the ONLY countries to pronounce the /I/ like "eye". Everywhere else, its the equivalent of /ee/ in English. To all the brits that will probably get up in arms about that and respond with "well...thats how *we* say it in English and its *our* language!". Just like all the words you took from French, German, Latin and Greek where THEIR languages. So if it's incorrect for Americans to change pronunciations, then it was incorrect for the Brits to do the same. So there nyah. 

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19 minutes ago, jsterr1 said:

Is it just me or when people type "That's the American pronunciation", you can just hear the sneer? This is the way I look at is, "fun guy" and "fun jeye" are both incorrect. Why, you ask?
Do you say "veneye, veyedeye, veyeceye"? No? Why not? OOOHHHH, because those words are LATIN and that's not how they pronounce the letter "I". In fact, English speaking countries, as far as I know are the ONLY countries to pronounce the /I/ like "eye". Everywhere else, its the equivalent of /ee/ in English. To all the brits that will probably get up in arms about that and respond with "well...thats how *we* say it in English and its *our* language!". Just like all the words you took from French, German, Latin and Greek where THEIR languages. So if it's incorrect for Americans to change pronunciations, then it was incorrect for the Brits to do the same. So there nyah. 

Correction: we were invaded and those languages were forced on us, one way or another.

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On 5/30/2017 at 1:42 PM, Manticore said:

Don't know if it's still true, but Micro$oft Publisher used to think the plural of rhinoceros was 'rhinoceroses'.

Found that out when one of my students was searching for flower clipart for a Valentines Day card.

in modern Greek it is ρινόκεροι with the ending οι as english ee. Reenokeree, with accent on the o. ReenO-keree.

Edited by michel123456
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2 hours ago, Strange said:

I don't think Germany or Greece have ever invaded. Nor India or Japan or Spain or the  Aztecs or ... 

But they were carried by the invaders as part of their language. Anyway, Fowler's says it's fungai, funjai or funguses.

 

Edited by StringJunky
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